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It is not required to have CompTIA A+ certification prior to obtaining CompTIA Network+ certification. It is recommended to have CompTIA A+ certification or the knowledge of the subject matter that is covered under A+ certification exam before taking Network+ certification exam. It is also recommended, but not required, that you have about 12 months of IT networking work experience.

Go to: Set II | Set III

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 - Set I

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Question 1

A technician is replacing a switch at a branch office and discovers the existing backbone cable does not fit in the new switch. The fiber patch panel has circular connections. The new switch has a transceiver that accepts a smaller square adapter of two strands. Which of the following patch cables would the technician need to complete the installation? (ID-NTIA-160)

A	SC to ST
B	LC to SC
C	ST to ST
D	LC to ST
E	SC to SC

Question 2

Installing an electrical generator to a datacenter is an example of which of the following fault tolerance concepts? (ID-NTIA-54)

A	Power looping
B	Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
C	Power redundancy
D	Redundant circuits
E	Dual power supplies

Question 2 Explanation:

You may have thought Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS). A UPS is a device that uses battery power, not a generator and it is not meant to supply power for a long period of time. A well-planned data center should have, power generators, UPS devices and power conditioning units.

Question 3

Which of the following security protocols can authenticate users without transmitting their passwords over the network? (ID-NTIA-31)

A	Radius
B	802.1X
C	Kerberos
D	TKIP
E	LDAP

Question 4

Which of the following connector types are associated with fiberoptic cables? Choose more than one answer. (ID-NTIA-57)

A	ST
B	RJ11
C	LC
D	MTRJ
E	RJ45
F	F-type

Question 4 Explanation:

Types: straight tip (ST), local connector (LC), and mechanical transfer–registered jack (MTRJ).

Question 5

In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the following symbol represent? (ID-NTIA-08)

A	Encryption key
B	HTTPS server
C	VPN gateway
D	Secure server
E	Authentication server

Question 6

Which of the following security mechanisms dynamically assigns a Layer 2 address and restricts traffic only to that Layer 2 address? (ID-NTIA-162)

A	Sticky MAC
B	ACL
C	NAC
D	802.1x
E	NAT

Question 7

A standard network rack is typically ruled vertically using which of the following measurements? (ID-NTIA-21)

A	Centimeters
B	Millimeters
C	Inches
D	Units
E	Number of screw holes

Question 7 Explanation:

Rack diagrams use vertical measurement called units, each of which is 1.75 inches.

Question 8

Which of the following best describes geofencing? (ID-NTIA-113)

A	Something you do
B	Somewhere you are
C	Something you have
D	Something you know

Question 9

The NetBIOS is part of which layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (ID-NTIA-74)

A	Physical
B	Session
C	Network
D	Presentation
E	Data Link
F	Transport
G	Application

Question 10

What field in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Option subheader specifies the size of the largest segment a system can receive? (ID-NTIA-101)

A	Window
B	WinMS
C	MMS
D	MSS

Question 11

Management is concerned there is excessive traffic on the network. A network technician wants to run a quick port scan to see any systems that have open ports. Which of the following tools should be used to do this? (ID-NTIA-197)

A	nmap
B	netstat
C	tcpdump
D	dig

Question 12

Which of the following routing metrics is used to determine the path of a network that utilizes RIPv2 to route traffic? (ID-NTIA-130)

A	Ping time
B	Hop count
C	Speed
D	Bandwidth
E	Distance

Question 13

Based on the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following statement on broadcast and collision domains is true? (ID-NTIA-102)

A	It is impossible to have a collision domain in a wireless network infrastructure.
B	Broadcast domains occur in layer 1 while collision domains occur in layer 2.
C	It is impossible to have a collision domain in a wired (LAN) network infrastructure.
D	Collision domains occur in layer 1 while broadcast domains occur in layer 2.
E	Both broadcast and collision domains occur at layer 2.

Question 14

Which network topology requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations? (ID-NTIA-73)

A	Ad hoc
B	Star
C	Bus
D	Ring
E	Mesh

Question 15

The backups server connects to a NAS device using block-level storage over Ethernet. The performance is very slow, however, and the network technician suspects the performance issues are network-related Which of the following should the technician do to improve performance? (ID-NTIA-165)

A	Enable jumbo frames on the NAS and server
B	Turn off MDIX settings on the NAS and server switchports
C	Encapsulate the storage traffic in a GRE tunnel
D	Utilize UDP to eliminate packet overhead

Question 16

Which of the following attack types involves the modification of a legitimate software product? (ID-NTIA-91)

A	Wardriving
B	Logic bomb
C	Evil twin
D	Social engineering

Question 17

A secured government building that scans the faces of incoming people and compares them to a database of authorized entrants is using which of the following types of technology? (ID-NTIA-94)

A	Tamper detection
B	Pattern recognition
C	Geofencing
D	Biometrics
E	Face geometry

Question 18

Which of the following protocols is used to transport outgoing mail across networks? (ID-NTIA-190)

A	POP
B	IMAP
C	LDAP
D	SMTP

Question 19

Which of the following can a network administrator use to access a network switch using standard AAA configurations? (ID-NTIA-192)

A	TACACS+
B	Local authentication
C	LDAP
D	Single sign-on

Question 20

A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard socket. Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing? (ID-NTIA-177)

A	PAT
B	NAT
C	ARP
D	STP
E	SNAT

Question 20 Explanation:

Port Address Translation (PAT)

Question 21

A government agency has hundreds of mobile devices for their field agents. In order to secure their IT assets and data, the agency implemented a system where these mobile devices only operate in specific field locations. If an employee tried to log into a mobile device outside of these specific field locations, the hard drive will self encrypt and the device becomes unusable. This is an example of what type of security measures? (ID-NTIA-93)

A	Tamper detection
B	Geofencing
C	Biometric
D	Social engineering
E	Asset tracking

Question 22

Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standards is the oldest and therefore the most obsolete? (ID-NTIA-55)

A	BiDi
B	SFP
C	GBIC
D	QSFP

Question 22 Explanation:

Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC)

Question 23

You were advised to replace a failed network switch in a datacenter. Which of the following would you use to determine the precise location of the device? (ID-NTIA-107)

A	Rack diagram
B	Building blueprints
C	Logical diagram
D	Network map
E	Wiring schematic

Question 24

IT department suspects that a rogue employee is attempting to access a print server located in an unsecured area on the main office floor. Assuming the print server is a Windows-based system, which of the following event logs can record information about both successful and failed access attempts? (ID-NTIA-62)

A	Application
B	Security
C	Setup
D	System

Question 25

Which of the following terms describes the process by which a client user or computer requests that it be issued a certificate, either manually or automatically? (ID-NTIA-95)

A	Encryption
B	Certification
C	Authorization
D	Enrollment
E	Authentication

Question 26

Which of the following security methord is most likley effective against an insdier threat? (ID-NTIA-60)

A	Video surveillance
B	Smartcards
C	Motion detection
D	Biometrics

Question 26 Explanation:

Other than video surveillance, all other options can be defeated by an insider. An insider threat is when someone already authorized to access organizations' network infrastructure performs a nefarious act.

Question 27

A network administrator needs to install a border device on the network that will help ensure FTP commands are not being sent in traffic communicating on port 25. What device will allow for deep packet inspection? (ID-NTIA-149)

A	NAT
B	Layer 7 firewall
C	Layer 3 switch
D	Web proxy
E	Protocol analyzer

Question 28

A network administrator has deployed a secure wireless network that authenticates using Active Directory network credentials so individual users are uniquely identified when connected to the WLAN. Which of the following wireless technologies has the administrator configured? (ID-NTIA-181)

A	PSK
B	EAP-PEAP
C	CCMP-AES
D	WEP

Question 29

A typical cell tower will have microwave and cellular antennas. Which of the following network topologies do these represent? Choose all the correct answers. (ID-NTIA-159)

A	Point-to-point
B	Point-to-multipoint
C	Peer-peer
D	Mesh
E	Bus
F	Ring

Question 30

In Kerberos protocol, where is the Authenticating Service and Ticket Granting Service are held? (ID-NTIA-112)

A	RDP
B	Application server
C	Client terminal
D	KDC

Question 30 Explanation:

Key Distribution Center (KDC)

Question 31

Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (ID-NTIA-64)

A	Bridge
B	Hub
C	Router
D	Switch

Question 32

A Toronto hockey facility requested a guest wireless access system. Owners want to issue their guests vouchers with WiFi access codes that include expirations (time limits). Which of the following is the best choice to meet this requirement? (ID-NTIA-121)

A	Captive portal
B	Port security
C	MAC filtering
D	WAP
E	NAC

Question 33

A network technician notices the site-to-site VPN and Internet connection have not come back up at a branch office after a recent power outage. Which of the following is an out-of-band method the technician would most likely utilize to check the branch office’s router status? (ID-NTIA-155)

A	Walk a user through troubleshooting the connection
B	Travel to the branch office
C	Hire a third-party contractor to go on-site
D	Use a modem to console into the router

Question 34

____________ is the configuration that disables the NAT feature on the modem and allows a router to function as a DHCP server without an IP Address conflict. (ID-NTIA-175)

A	Bridge mode
B	Double NAT
C	Jumbo frame
D	DOCSIS
E	ADSL

Question 35

Which of the following signal types is carried by copper cable? (ID-NTIA-66)

A	Fiber optic
B	Microwave
C	Infrared
D	Electrical

Question 36

You are on the website sanuja.com. Sanuja also owns sanuja.net and would also like to reach sanuja.com via alias sanuja.net. What type of DNS record should you create? (ID-NTIA-122)

A	MX
B	CNAME
C	PTR
D	A
E	MD

Question 36 Explanation:

CNAME is a Canonical Name Record or Alias Record. A type of resource record in the Domain Name System (DNS), that specifies that one domain name is an alias of another canonical domain name.

Question 37

Which of the following DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology can adjust its transmission speed based on line conditions? (ID-NTIA-166)

A	VDSL
B	IDSL
C	HDSL
D	RADSL

Question 37 Explanation:

Rate-Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line (RADSL)

Question 38

A company decides to deploy customer-facing, touch-screen kiosks. The kiosks appear to have several open source service ports that could potentially become compromised. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to protect the kiosks? (ID-NTIA-131)

A	Install an IDS to monitor all traffic to and from the kiosks.
B	Install honeypots on the network to detect and analyze potential kiosk attacks before they occur.
C	Create a secondary NAT and connect the kiosks on it hence limit kiosks' ability to access the main network.
D	Create a new network segment with ACLs, limiting kiosks’ traffic with the internal network.
E	Enable switchport security on the ports to which the kiosks are connected to prevent network-level attacks.

Question 39

Allowing data to be centrally stored and accessed by multiple devices on an isolated subnet is best understood as ________. (ID-NTIA-195)

A	NAS
B	FTP
C	SAN
D	FCoE
E	iSCSI

Question 40

The web server hosting sanuja.com has a secure web application called Senawa. You have set up the server with Senawa assigned to the port number 123456 for remote web access. In order for you to access Senawa from a remote office, which of the following URLs should you use? (ID-NTIA-127)

A	https://sanuja.com:123456
B	http://sanuja.com:123456
C	None of the answers are correct because you cannot assign random port numbers.
D	https://sanuja.com/123456
E	http://sanuja.com/123456

Question 41

The IT manager at a small firm is in the process of renegotiating an SLA with the organization’s ISP. As part of the agreement, the organization will agree to a dynamic bandwidth plan to provide 300 Mbps of bandwidth. However, if the ISP determines that a host on the organization’s internal network produces malicious traffic, the ISP reserves the right to reduce available bandwidth to 5 Mbps. Which of the following policies is being agreed to in the SLA? (ID-NTIA-174)

A	Blocking
B	Bandwidth quotas
C	Session hijacking
D	Data usage limits
E	Throttling

Question 42

A typical nexus termination point for incoming telephone and wide area network (WAN) services is known as __________. (ID-NTIA-103)

A	PBX
B	MTBF
C	IDF
D	RDP
E	MDF

Question 42 Explanation:

Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

Question 43

A hacker uses a port scanner to penetrate your organization's IT systems. Vulnerabilities at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is used for this exploit? (ID-NTIA-108)

A	Network
B	Session
C	Transport
D	Application
E	Data Link

Question 44

A network technician is configuring a firewall access list to secure incoming connections to an email server. The internal address of this email server is 192.168.1.143. The firewall should allow external email servers to send email to the email server. The email server also supports client access via a web browser. Only secure protocols should be used, and only the necessary ports should be open. Which of the following ACL rules should be configured in the firewall’s WAN port? Choose all the correct answers. (ID-NTIA-153)

A	Permit 192.168.1.143 port143
B	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 587
C	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 443
D	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 110
E	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 25
F	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 80

Question 44 Explanation:

SMTPS (mail) port is 587 or 465 and HTTPS (web access) is 443.

Question 45

Sanuja has been hired by a critical care medical facility (hospital) to build a local area network (LAN) to connect over 150 network devices. The medical facility administrators have advised Sanuja that they have zero tolerance for radio and electromagnetic interference (EMI). Which of the following is the best solution for this facility? (ID-NTIA-86)

A	Enterrpise APs
B	Twisted pair cabling
C	Fiber-optic cabling
D	Coaxial cabling

Question 45 Explanation:

Fiber-optic (aka optical fiber) is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and itself does not produce EMI while in operations.

Question 46

A building is equipped with light sensors that turn off the fluorescent lights when natural light is above a certain brightness. Users report experiencing network connection issues only during certain hours. The west side of the building experiences connectivity issues in the morning hours and the east side near the end of the day. At night the connectivity issues affect the entire building. Which of the following could be the cause of the connectivity issues? (ID-NTIA-144)

A	Network wiring is run perpendicular to electrical conduit
B	EMI from the lights is interfering with the network cables
C	Temperature changes are causing attenuation in copper cabling
D	Light sensors are interfering with the network

Question 46 Explanation:

This question is extracted word-to-word from a real N10-007 exam from CompTIA. Some argue the answer should be EMI from the lights is interfering with the network cables. If the wires come in contact with one another it will cause interference, in this case, they are running one over the other instead of side by side which would eliminate the interference..

Question 47

The _____________ protocol provides connection-oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI model. (ID-NTIA-68)

A	UDP
B	IP
C	TCP
D	HTTP

Question 47 Explanation:

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

Question 48

Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specifications calls for the use of copper cable? (ID-NTIA-42)

A	10GBase-LX4
B	10GBase-LR
C	10GBase-CX4
D	10GBase-SR
E	10GBase-ER

Question 49

Which of the following well-known ports do you use to configure outgoing mail on a POP3 email client? (ID-NTIA-01)

A	989
B	25
C	143
D	110
E	80

Question 50

You work for a large organization and your company occupies several floors of a downtown office building. You were told one of the network printers is malfunctioning. Which documentation most likely contains the tracking information about the printer such as the physical location (floor number, room, etc)? (ID-NTIA-49)

A	Asset management files
B	Wiring schematic
C	Physical network diagram
D	Circuit diagrams
E	Logical network diagram

Question 51

A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages? (ID-NTIA-06)

A	SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
B	SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK
C	SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK
D	SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK

Question 51 Explanation:

Remember the three-way handshake.

Question 52

Which of the following commands can Sanuja use to display the number of bytes that a Windows workstation has transmitted? (ID-NTIA-99)

A	traceroute
B	netstat
C	iptables
D	tcpdump
E	ipconfig

Question 53

Which utility is the easiest to use for identifying a malfunctioning router on a network? (ID-NTIA-45)

A	netstat
B	ping
C	traceroute
D	ifconfig

Question 54

Your company has spare network equipment to be used in an emergency. In order to minimize downtime, which of the following actions should your IT department take? (ID-NTIA-163)

A	Do nothing and keep the spare nearby for an emergency.
B	Keep purchasing new spare equipment.
C	Instead of replacing current units during failures, use parts from the spare units to fix the current unit.
D	Update the firmware and drivers on spare network equipment regularly.
E	Store all spare equipment in a sepearete office building for extra protection.

Question 54 Explanation:

Some companies have the bright idea of having spare units, but fail to update firmware and OS. When the spares are needed, technicians have to update the firmware before installing the replacement. In some cases, such as Windows Servers, which never have been updated may result in driver failure and may take several hours/days to get the system back in running. Always update your spares!

Question 55

Which of the following types of cable, when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap? (ID-NTIA-11)

A	Shielded twisted pair
B	Multimode fiber optic
C	Coaxial
D	Single-mode fiber optic
E	Unshielded twisted pair

Question 56

Which of the following is the best way to detect and discourage insider the threat on a large scale infrastructure such as government IT networks? (ID-NTIA-61)

A	Physical inspection of each site/workstation.
B	Configure advance intrusion detection and firewall rules on the main datacenter.
C	Perform frequent IT audits.
D	Install and maintain advanced enterprise firewall applications.
E	Perform frequent security and vulnerability updates.

Question 56 Explanation:

Insider the threat is when someone who is already authorized to use organizations' network infrastructure abuse the system. The best option in large scale operations such as government agencies is to perform frequent audits.

Question 57

What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information? (ID-NTIA-35)

A	Network
B	Transport
C	Session
D	Physical
E	Presentation
F	Application
G	Data link

Question 58

A network technician is creating a diagram of network termination points in the building. The technician diagrammed the core network room and now needs to diagram the auxiliary network closets. Which of the following is the technician MOST likely going to add to the diagram? (ID-NTIA-198)

A	MDF
B	IDF
C	TDM
D	VRF

Question 58 Explanation:

Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

Question 59

Which of the following best describes SNMP? (ID-NTIA-115)

A	Network management
B	Remote connection
C	Fault tolerance
D	Distributed server system
E	Site-to-site VPN

Question 59 Explanation:

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

Question 60

The DOCSIS (specification) is used by which for the following Internet connection types? (ID-NTIA-169)

A	Cable broadband
B	DSL
C	Dial-up modem
D	ISDN

Question 60 Explanation:

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)

Question 61

What is the width of a standard equipment rack in a datacenter? (ID-NTIA-52)

A	16 inches
B	19 inches
C	24 inches
D	12 inches

Question 62

Which of the following switch types immediately forwards frames after looking at only the destination address? (ID-NTIA-43)

A	Store-and-forward
B	Cut-through
C	Source route
D	Destination switch

Question 63

A company’s web-based application has a database that is set up for high availability in case of a failure. Which of the following is necessary to achieve this type of setup? (ID-NTIA-199)

A	A private IP pointing to the web front end
B	A private IP pointing to the web proxy
C	A static IP pointing to the passive DB
D	A virtual IP pointing to the active DB

Question 64

Which of the following telecommunications components is all but obsolete and is found only in old, analog telephone installations? (ID-NTIA-50)

A	66 block
B	110 block
C	CMTS
D	Fiber distribution panel
E	Patch panel

Question 65

Which of the following wide-area networking (WAN) services provides the fastest transfer rate? (ID-NTIA-168)

A	OC-1
B	T-3
C	T-1
D	E-1

Question 66

Which of the following commands did a network technician run, if the network technician receives the following command output from a Linux-based machine? (ID-NTIA-196)
SANUJA.COM 430 IN mx mx1.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 5 IN mx mx2.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 430 IN mx mx10.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns1.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns2.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns3.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns4.SANUJA.COM

A	dig –t ANY SANUJA.COM
B	NMAP –t SANUJA.COM
C	netstat –a SANUJA.COM
D	iptables –f SANUJA.COM

Question 67

Which of the following best describes the differences between VLAN hopping and session hijacking? (ID-NTIA-176)

A	VLAN hopping involves the unauthorized transition from one VLAN to another to gain additional access. Session hijacking involves overriding a user’s web connection to execute commands.
B	VLAN hopping is a brute force attack executed to gain additional access. Session hijacking involves physically disrupting a network connection.
C	VLAN hopping involves overriding a user network connection to execute malicious commands. Session hijacking involves compromising a host to elevate privileges.
D	VLAN hopping is the act of exploiting poor VLAN tagging. Session hijacking is a web-based attack aimed at privilege escalation.

Question 68

Which of the following Windows applications would you most likely use to create a baseline of system or network performance? (ID-NTIA-38)

A	Event Viewer
B	ntop
C	Network Monitor
D	Performance Monitor
E	Syslog

Question 69

A technician wants to prevent an unauthorized host from connecting to the network via Ethernet. Which of the following is a Layer 2 access control the technician should implement? (ID-NTIA-148)

A	WPA2
B	Captive portal
C	Access control lists
D	Port security

Question 70

Which of the following protocols does the ping program never use to carry its messages? (ID-NTIA-98)

A	TCP
B	Ethernet
C	IP
D	ICMP
E	UDP

Question 71

This function can be interfered with by a DNS poisoning attack. (ID-NTIA-96)

A	Name resolution
B	Network switching
C	IP address resolution
D	Password protection

Question 72

Manuja, a new employee within a department, cannot print to any of the printers in the department or access any of the resources that others can. However, he can access the Internet. The network engineer has confirmed that Manuja’s account has been set up the same as the others. There are no access lists restricting Manuja’s access. Which of the following could be the issue for this lack of access? (ID-NTIA-129)

A	Spanning tree blocked ports
B	VLAN mismatch
C	DHCP server issue
D	Duplex/speed mismatch
E	DNS server issue

Question 73

A network technician of an Internet Service Provider(ISP) was told that one of their customers cannot access the Internet. Upon investigation, the technician realized the customer has added a router, a day before, behind their ISP provided modem/router combo unit in order to increase the number of LAN ports. Which of the following has the user most likely introduced to the network? (ID-NTIA-154)

A	Packet intrusion
B	VLAN mismatch
C	Evil twin
D	Honey pot
E	Rogue DHCP server

Question 73 Explanation:

If the customer wants to use their own router, the modem/router combo unit must be set to bridge mode (sometimes call passthrough mode).

Question 74

Which of the following types of attacks is characterized by encrypting data and locking out a user from access to certain data within a workstation? (ID-NTIA-184)

A	Ransomware
B	Phishing
C	DDoS
D	Session hijacking
E	Spoofing

Question 75

Which of the following types of interference on a twisted pair network are designed to be prevented by the twists in the wire pairs inside the cable? (ID-NTIA-100)

A	Signal attenuation
B	Latency
C	Crosstalk
D	EMI

Question 76

A Windows workstation failed to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. Which of the following IP address most likely assigned to this workstations' port? (ID-NTIA-71)

A	192.168.1.1
B	175.255.255.255
C	169.254.54.5
D	175.168.0.255
E	192.168.0.1

Question 76 Explanation:

It within the APIPA range which is 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254.

Question 77

A technician is diagnosing an issue with a new T1 connection. The router is configured, the cable is connected, but the T1 is down. To verify the configuration of the router, which of the following tools should the technician use? (ID-NTIA-164)

A	Tone generator
B	Cable tester
C	Loopback adapter
D	Multimeter

Question 78

Which of the following commands enables you to view the ARP table stored in memory? (ID-NTIA-82)

A	arp -t
B	arp -a
C	arp -s
D	arp -c
E	arp -d

Question 79

You were advised to set up a new storage area network for a business, but you must use the existing infrastructure. Which of the following storage standards should you use? (ID-NTIA-135)

A	iSCSI
B	NAS
C	Fibre Channel
D	InfinitiBand

Question 79 Explanation:

Why not iSCSI? Because iSCSI is not a storage standard. ISCSI is a transport layer protocol and NAS is a storage standard.

Question 80

A network room that is equipped with a fingerprint scanner that authenticates the user at the entrance is using which of the following types of technology? (ID-NTIA-14)

A	Single sign-on (SSO)
B	Pattern recognition
C	Tamper detection
D	Hand geometry
E	Biometrics

Question 81

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium? (ID-NTIA-23)

A	Data link
B	Physical
C	Transport
D	Application
E	Session
F	Presentation
G	Network

Question 82

After deployment of a second network link to load balance the network traffic, the quality of voice calls degrades. The network administrator discovers the voice packets are arriving at uneven intervals that cannot be handled by the voice application buffer. Which of the following actions will improve the quality of the voice calls? (ID-NTIA-193)

A	Control the jitter of the affected traffic across the network links
B	Control the EMI of the multimedia traffic across the network links
C	Control the latency of traffic across the network links
D	Control the attenuation of the non-voice traffic across the network links

Question 83

A VoIP system will require 23 concurrent voice channels and one signaling channel. Which of the following types of WAN service would provide the best connectivity to the PSTN? (ID-NTIA-134)

A	DSL
B	E1/E3
C	BRI
D	PRI

Question 83 Explanation:

PRI (Primary Rate Interface)

Question 84

What connector would you use with RS-232? (ID-NTIA-118)

A	USB 3.0
B	USB 2.0
C	RJ45
D	RC5
E	DB9

Question 84 Explanation:

DB9 and DB15 style connectors are also used in VGA monitors.

Question 85

How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network? (ID-NTIA-72)

A	15
B	8
C	16
D	17

Question 85 Explanation:

An IP address has 32 bits. In this example, if 17 bits are allocated to the network identifier, 15 bits are left for the host identifier.

Question 86

Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the IT department received a shipment of 100 laptops and docking stations. The first action the IT department took is to affix stickers with scannable barcodes to each device. Then the barcode information is linked with specific user biodata. before deploying them to the end-users. This procedure can be best described as ______________. (ID-NTIA-59)

A	device hardening
B	biometrics
C	asset tracking
D	hardware security
E	tamper detection

Question 87

What cloud service provides hardware (such as servers) and preconfigured operating systems (OS) by enableing you to select the OS you want to install? (ID-NTIA-119)

A	VPN
B	IaaS
C	Hosted
D	SaaS
E	PaaS

Question 87 Explanation:

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is a type of cloud computing offering in which a service provider delivers a platform to clients, enabling them to develop, run, and manage business applications without the need to build and maintain the infrastructure such software development processes typically require.

Question 88

Identification badges, key fobs, and mantraps all fall into which of the following categories of security devices? (ID-NTIA-17)

A	Data security
B	Port security
C	Physical security
D	Asset tracking

Question 89

Which of the following DNS record would you use if sanuja.com is exculsively hosted on a server that only has an IPv6? (ID-NTIA-123)

A	AAAA
B	TXT
C	NS
D	MX
E	A

Question 89 Explanation:

Note AAAA record takes IPv6 host information.

Question 90

A network technician configures a firewall’s ACL to allow outgoing traffic for several popular services such as email and web browsing. However, after the firewall’s deployment, users are still unable to retrieve their emails. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue? (ID-NTIA-178)

A	Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 25, 67,179, and 3389
B	Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 21, 53, 69, and 123
C	Set the firewall to operate in transparent mode
D	Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 80,110,143, and 443

Question 91

Which of the following protocol is used by web browsers to communicate with web servers? (ID-NTIA-56)

A	HTTP
B	FTP
C	HTML
D	SMTP
E	SSL

Question 92

An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network, however, the corporate policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. Which of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without breaking the corporate policy? (ID-NTIA-157)

A	DHCP reservation
B	DHCP exclusion
C	DHCP relay
D	DHCP restriction
E	DHCP option

Question 93

Which of the following attack methods is associated with unprotected Wi-Fi network systems? (ID-NTIA-92)

A	Wardriving
B	Logic bomb
C	Evil twin
D	Social engineering

Question 93 Explanation:

Wardriving is an attack method that consists of driving around a neighborhood with a computer scanning for unprotected wireless networks.

Question 94

An employee wishes to use a personal cell phone for work-related purposes, including storage of sensitive company data, during long business trips. Which of the following is needed to protect BOTH the employee and the company? (ID-NTIA-145)

A	An NDA ensuring work data stored on the personal phone remains confidential
B	An AUP covering how a personal phone may be used for work matters
C	A consent to monitoring policy covering company audits of the personal phone
D	Real-time remote monitoring of the phone’s activity and usage

Question 95

Which encryption standard is used by CCMP? (ID-NTIA-110)

A	AES
B	TKIP
C	802.1X
D	RC4
E	Kerberos

Question 95 Explanation:

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Question 96

Which of the following is not one of the typical heights for devices mounted in IT equipment racks? (ID-NTIA-13)

A	4 unit
B	3 unit
C	2 unit
D	1 unit

Question 96 Explanation:

Typically rack-mountable network equipments have a height of 1U, 2U or 4U. But you may rarely come across unusual units with odd values (other than 1U) such as 3U or 5Us server cases.

Question 97

Which of the following syslog message severity levels indicates that the message is just informational? (ID-NTIA-97)

A	2
B	6
C	4
D	0
E	7

Question 98

Which of the following, originally created for the UNIX sendmail program, is now a standard for message logging that enables tools that generate, store, and analyze log information to work together? (ID-NTIA-22)

A	Top
B	Netstat
C	Syslog
D	Netmon

Question 99

The main server for your organization is located in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. You have an office in Calgary, Alberta, Canada. Which of the following virtual private network (VPN) connection should you use to connect the main server to the branch office in Calgary? (ID-NTIA-116)

A	Branch-to-server
B	Host-to-site
C	Extranet
D	Site-to-site
E	Host-to-host

Question 100

Your company is moving to a new building. After the site survey, you decided to install 25 wireless access points (AP) in drop ceilings across four floors. Which of the following would be the most efficient method for powering 25 APs? (ID-NTIA-187)

A	Power distribution unit
B	Ethernet power controller
C	Powerline extender
D	Ethernet-over-power adapter
E	Power-over-Ethernet switch

Question 101

Which of the following bridging types has never been used on Ethernet local area networks (LANs)? (ID-NTIA-87)

A	Multiport
B	Source route
C	Store and forward
D	Transparent

Question 102

In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the following symbol represent? (ID-NTIA-02)

A	A hub
B	A switch
C	A gateway
D	A router

Question 103

____________ describes a system that prevents computers from logging on to a network unless they have the latest updates and antimalware software installed. (ID-NTIA-40)

A	TKIP-RC4
B	RADIUS
C	LDAP
D	NAC

Question 103 Explanation:

Network Access Control (NAC)

Question 104

Which of the following command-line utilities can only run on Unix and Linux systems? (ID-NTIA-20)

A	netstat
B	ping
C	ipconfig
D	tracert
E	ifconfig

Question 105

A network engineer at a government agency is restricting Internet browsing on the corporate WAN to only government-related external websites. Which of the following is the best solution to achieve this goal while avoiding the need to configure this restriction on each PC? (ID-NTIA-185)

A	IPS
B	VLAN restrictions
C	VPN concentrator
D	Content filter
E	Web application firewall

Question 106

Which of the following wireless security protocols was substantially weakened by its initialization vector? (ID-NTIA-170)

A	WEP
B	WPA
C	WPA2
D	PEAP

Question 106 Explanation:

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

Question 107

Which of the following syslog message severity levels indicates that a system is unusable? (ID-NTIA-80)

A	4
B	1
C	0
D	2
E	3

Question 107 Explanation:

Code 0 is the most severe,

Question 108

Which of the following is a correct term describing the function of a switch? (ID-NTIA-34)

A	Multiport bridge
B	Layer 3 repeater
C	Layer 2 router
D	Ethernet hub

Question 109

Which of the following cable types exclusively is used for Thin Ethernet network segments? (ID-NTIA-32)

A	RJ-11
B	RG-58
C	RJ-45
D	RG-8

Question 110

What is the function of the tool shown in the following figure? (ID-NTIA-78)

Image Credit: https://www.tequipment.net/ FlukeNetworks52801009.html

A	When you place the tool at one end of a wire, it generates a tone that can be detected at the other end.
B	By touching the end of the tool to a copper cable, you can detect and measure the electrical current flowing through it.
C	By connecting the clips to pins in a punchdown block, you can access telephone circuits in order to test them or place telephone calls.
D	To attach a bulk cable end to an RJ45 connector, you use the tool to squeeze the connector closed, forcing the wire ends to contact the connector’s pins.

Question 110 Explanation:

This is known as lineman's handset or more commonly known as a butt-set.

Question 111

What performance monitoring tool is shown here (click on figure to enlarge) that enables a system administrator to monitor information about processes that are currently running on a Unix/Linux server? (ID-NTIA-28)

A	top
B	monitor
C	netstat
D	ping
E	cpustat

Question 112

Management at a company wants to increase the bandwidth available to users after receiving several complaints. A technician reports to management that 50% of the company bandwidth is being utilized by wireless devices outside the company’s property. Given budget constraints, which of the following solutions should the technician propose to management? (ID-NTIA-189)

A	Have the ISP double the bandwidth
B	Configure geofencing
C	Move from WPA2 to WEP
D	Enable WPA and change the SSID

Question 113

What topology is used when devices are connected in a LAN via an Ethernet switch? (ID-NTIA-117)

A	Star
B	Bus
C	Point-to-point
D	Ring or circular
E	Mesh

Question 114

Which of the following Windows commands enables you to delete the entire ARP cache? (ID-NTIA-83)

A	arp -s
B	arp -c *
C	arp -d *
D	arp -a

Question 114 Explanation:

Note, arp -d command is for deleting cache entries, and by running it with the asterisk wildcard, the command deletes all of the entries in the cache.

Question 115

You want to make phone calls using the Intenet via a standard analog phone. Which device enables you to use the Internet instead of the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)? (ID-NTIA-133)

A	VPN concentrator
B	Proxy server
C	UTM appliance
D	VoIP gateway

Question 116

A customer is reporting difficulty connecting some devices after replacing a wireless router with a new wireless 802.11 ac router. The SSID, encryption, and password are the same as the previous router. A technician goes on-site and notices the devices that are no longer connecting appear to be several years old. Which of the following is most likely the problem? (ID-NTIA-152)

A	The channel has changed
B	There is insufficient antenna power
C	There is a frequency mismatch
D	The password needs to be re-entered
E	There is a security type mismatch.

Question 117

Which of the following can be done to implement network device hardening? Choose all correct answers. (ID-NTIA-128)

A	Enable port mirroring
B	Perform backups
C	Patch and update
D	Implement spanning tree
E	Perform VLAN hopping
F	Change default admin password

Question 118

Which of the following best describes an exploit? (ID-NTIA-137)

A	A router with default credentials
B	An open mail relay server
C	A privilege escalation script
D	An SNMPv1 private community

Question 119

A technician replaced a malfunctioning network switch with an identical new switch from the same vendor. The model and hardware version of the new switch matched the broken unit. The technician extracts the config files from the old unit and installs it on the new unit. After installation, the new switch boot up and shuts down itself. Considering that the hardware is identical, which of the following is the most likely cause of the failure? (ID-NTIA-161)

A	Damaged or malfunctioning fiber port
B	Corrupted config files or operating system
C	Damaged or malfunctioning LAN port
D	VLAN mismatch
E	Double NAT issue

Question 119 Explanation:

In my experience, you always take a risk when you migrate a firmware config files from one unit to another even when hardware versions match. If you have the time, it is sometimes better to reconfigure firmware of network equipment rather than loading from a backup on new equipment. The backups are useful when you need to reload the firmware to the same hardware.

Question 120

To increase speed and availability, a high-traffic web application was split into three servers recently and moved behind a load balancer. Which of the following should be configured on the load balancer to allow for a single destination? (ID-NTIA-188)

A	SIP
B	NAT
C	VIP
D	PAT

Question 120 Explanation:

Virtual IP (VIP)

Question 121

In Windows Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), which protocol is used for authentication of internal clients? (ID-NTIA-15)

A	EAP-TLS
B	RADIUS
C	Kerberos
D	WPA2

Question 122

A SAN serves out storage to a company’s virtual environment and provides low-level disk access. The company wants to use its existing IP network and equipment to access the virtual disks. Which of the following network connection types would BEST accomplish this task? (ID-NTIA-180)

A	iSCSI
B	CIFS
C	InfiniBand
D	Fibre Channel

Question 123

A technician is planning a remote-access strategy to manage routers and switches on a dedicated management network. The management network is segregated from the production network and uses site-to-site VPN connections. Some of the equipment does not support encryption. Which of the following should the technician choose that all the equipment would support? (ID-NTIA-173)

A	SSL
B	IPSec
C	Telnet
D	SSH

Question 124

A network technician needs to monitor the traffic going to a mission-critical server in the datacenter. Which of the following is the best method to perform this? (ID-NTIA-186)

A	Configure port aggregation
B	Periodically view the server logs
C	Use SQL injectors
D	Use port mirroring
E	Install an inline tap

Question 125

When connecting two switches together in a LAN, which of the following protocols should you use to increase speed and fault tolerance? (ID-NTIA-141)

A	LLDP
B	BGP
C	SIP
D	LACP

Question 125 Explanation:

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)

Question 126

Which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption? (ID-NTIA-24)

A	Presentation
B	Data link
C	Physical
D	Network
E	Application
F	Session
G	Transport

Question 127

A network administrator is testing connectivity at a new corporate site. The site has a wireless guest as well as a wired employee network. After verifying connectivity, the administrator checks link speeds by using a speed testing website. The speed testing website shows lower download and upload speeds for the wired network than the wireless network. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? (ID-NTIA-172)

A	The wireless access points were misconfigured
B	There is less local congestion on the wireless network
C	The firewall is configured to throttle traffic to specific websites
D	The testing server for the wired network was farther away

Question 127 Explanation:

This question is extracted out of a real Network+ exam. The answer is contested by some experts.

Question 128

Which of the following types of keys is included in a digital certificate? (ID-NTIA-18)

A	Private
B	Preshared
C	Privileged
D	Secured
E	Public

Question 129

A technician has installed a Linux server in the tax office. The server can access most of the resources on the network, but it cannot connect to another server that has a share for backup. The technician learns that the target server is on a different subnet. Which of the following tools should the technician use to ensure the Linux server can reach the backup location? (ID-NTIA-146)

A	dig
B	route
C	ifconfig
D	traceroute
E	netstat

Question 130

You were advised to fix a network issue at Foothills Hospital in Calgary. Which of the following documentation most likely contains the complete route of every cable run from the wall plate to the patch panel? (ID-NTIA-48)

A	Logical network diagram
B	Circuit diagrams
C	Asset management files
D	Wiring schematic
E	Physical network diagram

Question 131

Which of the following DNS record defines a mail exchange server that is associated with a domain name? (ID-NTIA-124)

A	MX
B	NS
C	AAAA
D	A
E	TXT

Question 132

If you are a System Administrator for a critical high availability IT infrastructure, which of the following types of patches you would least likely to install unless there is a specific reason to do so? (ID-NTIA-79)

A	Feature change
B	Vulnerability patch
C	BOIS firmware patch
D	Operating system update
E	Driver update

Question 132 Explanation:

If the system is working as it should, updating drivers may lead to instability. Unless there is a bug in the drivers, most IT professionals will postpone for forgo driver updates. Feature updates typically do not lead to instabilities. Other listed updates above are critical to keeping all systems running smoothly.

Question 133

Which of the following defines when Dhillon, an attacker, attempts to monitor wireless traffic in order to perform malicious activities? (ID-NTIA-150)

A	SQL injection
B	XSS
C	Directory traversal
D	Wardriving
E	Packet sniffing

Question 134

A network technician receives a switch that is configured to support VLANs on its ports. At which of the following layers is this switch operating? (ID-NTIA-191)

A	Layer 3
B	Layer 4
C	Layer 2
D	Layer 1

Question 135

This device enables administrators of enterprise wireless networks to manage multiple access points from a central location. (ID-NTIA-12)

A	Network firewall
B	Demarcation point
C	Wireless controller
D	Wireless endpoint
E	Demarcation point

Question 136

After installing a Linux web server, as a prudent IT Analyst, which of the following utilities should you use to check open ports that attackers might be able to penetrate? (ID-NTIA-47)

A	iptables
B	nmap
C	tcpdump
D	dig

Question 137

All of the following items are fault tolerance mechanisms except ______________. (ID-NTIA-114)

A	SNMP
B	UPS
C	Clustering
D	RAID 1

Question 137 Explanation:

Simple Network Monitoring Protocol (SNMP)

Question 138

Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session? (ID-NTIA-04)

A	SYN
B	END
C	URG
D	PSH
E	FIN

Question 139

Which of the following types of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) virtual private network (VPN) connections provides the most comprehensive access to the remote network? (ID-NTIA-58)

A	SSL portal
B	SSL client
C	SSL gateway
D	SSL tunnel

Question 140

Which of the following values could a web client use as an ephemeral port number when communicating with a web server? (ID-NTIA-26)

A	1999
B	23
C	995
D	50134
E	1024
F	80

Question 140 Explanation:

The allowed ephemeral port number values range from 49152 to 65535.

Question 141

Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (ID-NTIA-63)

A	IMAP
B	IP
C	IGMP
D	ICMP

Question 142

Which of the following parameters enables you to specify the number of messages the ping tool transmits? (ID-NTIA-29)

A	-n
B	-t
C	-i
D	-a

Question 143

A company runs Linux servers in its own datacenter and also on a popular public cloud service provider. The servers hosted by the cloud provider can only be accessed with proper authorization and are only accessed by the company’s datacenter. Which of the following BEST describes the type of cloud architecture being used? Choose all correct answers. (ID-NTIA-200)

A	IaaS
B	SaaS
C	Public
D	PaaS
E	Hybrid
F	Private

Question 144

A network technician downloaded new firmware for a mission-critical firewall. Which of the following should the network technician do before installing the firmware? (ID-NTIA-138)

A	Verify file version
B	Verify file hash
C	Verify file size
D	Verify file date
E	Verify file type

Question 144 Explanation:

File hash verifies to ensure the downloaded file is correct and complete. Companies like CISCO, IBM, HP, and Microsoft provides hash information on almost every downloadable update files.

Question 145

Which of the following command lines will produce the output shown in the figure? Click image to enlarge. (ID-NTIA-84)

A	ping 192.168.1.1 -l 2048 -t
B	ping 192.168.1.1 -l 2048 -n 6
C	ping 192.168.1.1 -n 2048
D	ping 192.168.1.1 -l 2048 -t 6
E	ping 192.168.1.1 -t

Question 145 Explanation:

Size of the message: -l parameter = 2048 bytes
Number of messages: -n parameter = 6

Question 146

Which of the following is not one of the functions provided by TACACS+? (ID-NTIA-76)

A	Administration
B	Accounting
C	Authorization
D	Authentication

Question 146 Explanation:

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

Question 147

Which of the following is a feature on high availability systems that enables them to automatically detect problems and react to them? (ID-NTIA-27)

A	Snapshots
B	Failover
C	Cold sites
D	Backups

Question 147 Explanation:

Failover has been a typical automated feature of high availability systems for a long time. However, backups and cold sites are also features of high avialability syetems, but not automaically reactive.

Question 148

When a service fails to start on a Windows server, an entry is typically created in which of the following event logs? (ID-NTIA-65)

A	Security
B	Application
C	System
D	Setup

Question 149

Which Windows tool uses ICMP messages and manipulates IPv4 time-to-live values to illustrate the route packets take through an internetwork? (ID-NTIA-77)

A	Tracert
B	Netstat
C	Nslookup
D	Route
E	Ping

Question 150

Which of the following RAID levels will not provide fault tolerance? (ID-NTIA-106)

A	RAID 10
B	RAID 5
C	RAID 0
D	RAID 1

Question 151

If a workstation has the IP address 192.168.1.55/24, which of the following is the most likely IP address of the router that is connected to the workstation? (ID-NTIA-142)

A	192.168.1.0
B	255 255 255.0
C	192.168.0.55
D	255 255 255.0
E	192.168.1.1

Question 152

Answer the following question based on the network diagram below. Assuming all Workstations receives their internal IP from the DHCP server within the router, which of the following is the most likely IP address of Workstation 5? Click on the image if it is hard to read. (ID-NTIA-36)

A	10.1.0.255
B	192.168.0.1
C	10.1.1.255
D	192.168.0.55
E	192.168.1.109

Question 153

In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the following symbol represent? (ID-NTIA-07)

A	A router
B	A hub
C	A switch
D	A gateway

Question 154

What is the valid range of numbers for the ephemeral client ports used by the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (ID-NTIA-67)

A	49152 through 65535
B	1023 through 65534
C	1 through 1024
D	1024 to 49151

Question 154 Explanation:

Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535 and this range dose not include already registred ports and commonly used standard ports.

Question 155

A server with Microsft Windows Server Datacentre edition is set up as a Domain Controller and primary gateway between all computers and devices within the LAN infrastructure. Which of the following networking devices offers the ability to increase both performance and security? (ID-NTIA-136)

A	Enterprise firewall
B	IDS
C	Wireless controller
D	Proxy server
E	Load balancer

Question 156

A request is made to open an additional port on a firewall. The request is approved, and the port is opened. Which of the following BEST describes this process? (ID-NTIA-183)

A	Change management
B	Project management
C	Process management
D	Standard operating procedure

Question 157

Which of the following devices often provides diagnostic testing capabilities at the demarcation point of a leased line wide area network (WAN) service? (ID-NTIA-167)

A	Media converter
B	SIP trunk
C	Smart jack
D	AAA server
E	SONET

Question 158

NetBIOS protocol uses the port _____ general and port _____ for secure traffic. The answer is in the respective order. (ID-NTIA-139)

A	5060 , 5061
B	80 , 443
C	5060 , 3389
D	161 , 162
E	143 , 993

Question 158 Explanation:

Read the Common port numbers table at the bottom of this page.

Question 159

Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-connector attached to the computer? (ID-NTIA-09)

A	8P8C
B	BNC
C	RJ45
D	F-type
E	MTRJ

Question 160

To keep the costs down, a small business allows its employees to use their own personal laptop computers to access their network infrastructure. This type of polity is typically known as __________. (ID-NTIA-140)

A	SLA
B	NDA
C	IRP
D	BYOD

Question 160 Explanation:

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)

Question 161

Which of the following is a system of notation that uses base 16 rather than base 10? (ID-NTIA-156)

A	Octal
B	Hex
C	CIDR
D	Binary

Question 162

Which of the following wireless security protocols uses CCMP for encryption? (ID-NTIA-81)

A	WPA2
B	WPA
C	802.1X
D	WEP

Question 163

A technician is configuring a printer for a client. The technician connects the printer to the network, but is unsure how to determine its switchport. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to locate the switchport? (ID-NTIA-126)

A	Configure port security on the switch.
B	Perform a DNS lookup on the server.
C	Reference the ARP table in the router.
D	Set up an SSH session to the desktop.

Question 164

In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found? (ID-NTIA-70)

A	Class A
B	Class B
C	None of the classes
D	Class D
E	Class C

Question 164 Explanation:

Address 127.0.0.1 is the designated IPv4 local loopback address, and as such, it is reserved.

Question 165

The _____________ specifies the amount of time needed to restore a server from the most recent backup if it should fail. (ID-NTIA-109)

A	MIB
B	RPO
C	RAID
D	BCP
E	RTO

Question 165 Explanation:

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Question 166

Which of the following is not a load balancing mechanism? (ID-NTIA-30)

A	RAID 1
B	NIC teaming
C	DNS round robin
D	Server clustering
E	Muti-ISP connections

Question 166 Explanation:

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) level 1 is a fault tolerance mechanism but does not provide load balancing.

Question 167

A content filter is set to analyze XML and JSON that users access from the Internet. At which of the following OSI layers is this analysis taking place? (ID-NTIA-132)

A	Layer 5
B	Layer 1
C	Layer 4
D	Layer 2
E	Layer 3
F	Layer 7
G	Layer 6

Question 167 Explanation:

Layer 6 is the presentation layer.

Question 168

A network technician notices that switches of the same model have different commands and security features while administering them. Which of the following hardening techniques should the technician perform on a regular schedule to ensure all switches have the same features and security functionality? (ID-NTIA-182)

A	Change the default credentials
B	Disable unused switchports
C	Apply patches and updates
D	Verify the firmware file hash

Question 169

Which of the following command-line utilities is capable of performing the same basic function as traceroute or tracert? (ID-NTIA-44)

A	ping
B	route
C	netstat
D	pathping

Question 170

Which of the following protocols does the Ping utility use to exchange messages with another system? (ID-NTIA-03)

A	ICMP
B	UDP
C	IGMP
D	TCP

Question 170 Explanation:

Ping operates by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo request packets to the target host and waiting for an ICMP echo reply.

Question 171

You are the IT Manager at a 150 employee small business located in downtown Vancouver. The accounting department filed a ticket claiming that they lost access to the accounting network drive. You strongly suspect an update on the firewall firmware may have changed a configuration leading to loss of access. Which documentation most likely contains the firewall configurations and access control lists information? (ID-NTIA-51)

A	MSConfig file
B	Wiring schematic
C	Physical network diagram
D	Logical network diagram
E	Asset management files

Question 172

A project lead is reviewing the statement of work for an upcoming project that is focused on identifying potential weaknesses in the organization’s internal and external network infrastructure. As part of the project, a team of external contractors will attempt to employ various attacks against the organization. The statement of work specifically addresses the utilization of an automated tool to probe network resources in an attempt to develop logical diagrams indication weaknesses in the infrastructure. The scope of activity as described in the statement of work is an example of ____________. (ID-NTIA-147)

A	social engineering
B	vulnerability scanning
C	session hijacking
D	penetration testing
E	friendly DoS

Question 173

In a public key infrastructure (PKI), which half of a cryptographic key pair is never transmitted over the network? (ID-NTIA-16)

A	The secure key
B	The session key
C	The private key
D	The ticket granting key
E	The public key

Question 174

Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default? (ID-NTIA-05)

A	443
B	80
C	25
D	110
E	990

Question 175

Sanuja installed six Windows computers in his home network connected to a switch and a cable modem/router that provides access to the Internet. One of the computers is able to connect to other computers and internal NAS but cannot connect to the Internet. Which of the following parameters on the malfunctioning computer will Sanuja most likely have to change to resolve this problem? (ID-NTIA-171)

A	MAC address
B	Default gateway
C	IP address
D	Subnet mask

Question 175 Explanation:

Subnet mask should be correct since the computer can communicate with the NAS and the other computers in the LAN.

Question 176

VLANs create the administrative boundaries on a switched network that are otherwise provided by which of the following devices? (ID-NTIA-33)

A	Routers
B	Hubs
C	Bridges
D	Firewalls

Question 177

When a user swipes a smartcard through a reader to log on to a Windows RDP session, which of the following actions is the user performing? (ID-NTIA-85)

A	Accounting
B	Authentication
C	Authorization
D	Auditing

Question 178

Which of the following types of wiring faults cannot be detected by a wiremap tester? (ID-NTIA-19)

A	Split pairs
B	Open circuits
C	Transposed wires
D	Short circuits

Question 178 Explanation:

It cannot detect split pairs because, in this fault situation, the pins are properly connected.

Question 179

A VPN concentrator is an advanced type of which of the following devices? (ID-NTIA-88)

A	Gateway
B	Bridge
C	Switch
D	Router

Question 180

Disk striping with distributed parity is used in which RIAD level? (ID-NTIA-105)

A	RAID 5
B	RAID 10
C	RAID 0
D	RAID 1

Question 181

During a weekend event, several people reported they were unable to get onto the wireless network. On Monday, the technician could not find a problem. Which of the following is the most likely cause? (ID-NTIA-194)

A	Overcapacity
B	Wrong passphrase
C	Channel overlap
D	Cross talk

Question 182

Which of the following is a disadvantage of migrating data to a SaaS cloud service? (ID-NTIA-143)

A	Incompatibility with the current network
B	Increased malware exposure
C	Decreased performance of the internal network
D	Loss of full control over data resources
E	Inconsistent data accessability

Question 183

Which of the following storage network technologies provides access to data using block-level storage? (ID-NTIA-120)

A	Jumbo frames
B	Fiber channel
C	SAN
D	FTP
E	NAS

Question 183 Explanation:

NAS provides File-Level Access, SAN provides Block Level Access. But in the past, CompTIA Network+ exams had NAS as the answer hence confusing a lot of people.

Question 184

In order to hide the internal IP addresses (LAN) of devices across WAN, which of the following should you configure? (ID-NTIA-158)

A	RIP
B	DDoS
C	NAT
D	QoS
E	DMZ

Question 185

Which of the following is the range of IPv4 addresses that Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server? (ID-NTIA-69)

A	10.0.0.0 to 10.0.255.255
B	224.0.0.0 to 224.0.255.255
C	169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
D	192.168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255

Question 186

Multiple users in a small organization with 50 employees complained that they cannot access certain applications installed on an in-house server. What type of problem is this? (ID-NTIA-46)

A	A wide area newtwork problem
B	A shared resource problem
C	A network-wide problem
D	A system-wide problem
E	A user application problem

Question 186 Explanation:

You may argue that this can be also classified as a user application problem because the users are complaining about not having access to applications. However, the it is not the best answer because if multiple users complain they cannot access an application that is installed on a central server, it is most likely an issue with the server, thus it is a network-wide problem.

Question 187

Windows remote access users with smartcards can be authenticated via which of the following protocols? (ID-NTIA-39)

A	MS-CHAPv2
B	PAP
C	CHAP
D	EAP
E	WEP

Question 187 Explanation:

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 188

Which of the following technique can be used to scan multiple computers on a network for an open TCP or UDP port? (ID-NTIA-104)

A	Port scanning
B	War driving
C	Brute-force
D	Bluejacking
E	Port sweeping

Question 189

A network engineer is designing a new IDF in an old building. The engineer determines the equipment will fit in a two-post rack, and there is power available for this equipment. Which of the following would be the FIRST issue to remediate? (ID-NTIA-151)

A	Circuit labeling
B	UPS capability
C	Power redundancy
D	Airflow and cooling

Question 190

Typically group membership is used in this security procedure. (ID-NTIA-111)

A	Authentication
B	Accounting
C	Auditing
D	Authorization
E	TGS

Question 191

MAC filtering is an access control method used by which of the following types of hardware devices? (ID-NTIA-25)

A	Smartcards
B	RADIUS server
C	Domain controller
D	Wireless access point
E	Biometric systems

Question 192

Answer the following question based on the network diagram below. You were hired as an IT consultant and told to improve the following network. What might be something that you would recommend? Click on the image if it is hard to read. (ID-NTIA-37)

A	Remove one of the routers and if requires use VLANs to create separate subnets with specific firewall rules.
B	Add a firewall between the domain controller and the router.
C	Add additional printers across both NATs.
D	Remove the firewall between the Internet/modem and the router.

Question 193

Which of the following technologies is typically associated with virtual PBX services? (ID-NTIA-89)

A	Voice over IP
B	Round-robin DNS
C	Quality of service
D	CARP

Question 194

A typical modern VOIP phone is equipped with which type of connector? (ID-NTIA-10)

A	ST
B	RJ45
C	F-type
D	MTRJ
E	RJ11

Question 195

All of the following protocols are used to secure virtual private network (VPN) connections except _____________. (ID-NTIA-125)

A	IPsec
B	FTPS
C	L2TP
D	PPTP

Question 196

In the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, where would the sublayer Media Access Control (MAC) fall under? (ID-NTIA-75)

A	Transport
B	Network
C	Data Link
D	Application
E	Physical
F	Presentation
G	Session

Question 197

The ______________ technology can maintain an account database that multiple remote access servers can employ to authenticate remote users. (ID-NTIA-41)

A	IDS
B	NAS
C	RADIUS
D	NGFW

Question 197 Explanation:

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Question 198

Which of the following is associated with the technique for prioritizing traffic by tagging packets based on their content? (ID-NTIA-90)

A	SSL
B	IPv6
C	CARP
D	VoIP
E	QoS

Question 199

Most enterprise servers have dual power supplies. Which of the following mode provides power fault tolerance? (ID-NTIA-53)

A	Redundant mode
B	Combined mode
C	Hot backup mode
D	Individual mode
E	High-efficiency mode

Question 199 Explanation:

In combined mode, if one PSU fails or one power circuit fails, the entire system will lose power. Please note that different hardware manufactures may use their own terminology to describe redundant mode (for example backup mode). But the correct technical term is the redundant mode.

Question 200

Which of the following protocols do most man-in-the-middle attack (MITM) attacks utilize? (ID-NTIA-179)

A	SIP
B	FTP
C	ARP
D	SCP

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Based on general knowledge and CompTIA guidelines published in 2020.
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Sanuja Senanayake

CompTIA N10-007 Exam

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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 - Set I

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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 - Set I

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