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If you get a question wrong, you can still click on the other answers. This will open up hints and explanations (if available), which will provide additional information. Exam should be 1 minute per question and please time accordingly.

It is not required to have CompTIA A+ certification prior to obtaining CompTIA Network+ certification. It is recommended to have CompTIA A+ certification or the knowledge of the subject matter that is covered under A+ certification exam before taking Network+ certification exam. It is also recommended, but not required, that you have about 12 months of IT networking work experience.

Go to: Set II | Set III

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 - Set I

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Question 1

What field in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Option subheader specifies the size of the largest segment a system can receive? (ID-NTIA-101)

A	Window
B	WinMS
C	MSS
D	MMS

Question 2

Which of the following connector types are associated with fiberoptic cables? Choose more than one answer. (ID-NTIA-57)

A	MTRJ
B	ST
C	LC
D	F-type
E	RJ11
F	RJ45

Question 2 Explanation:

Types: straight tip (ST), local connector (LC), and mechanical transfer–registered jack (MTRJ).

Question 3

Which of the following protocols is used to transport outgoing mail across networks? (ID-NTIA-190)

A	IMAP
B	SMTP
C	LDAP
D	POP

Question 4

A network technician of an Internet Service Provider(ISP) was told that one of their customers cannot access the Internet. Upon investigation, the technician realized the customer has added a router, a day before, behind their ISP provided modem/router combo unit in order to increase the number of LAN ports. Which of the following has the user most likely introduced to the network? (ID-NTIA-154)

A	Honey pot
B	Rogue DHCP server
C	VLAN mismatch
D	Packet intrusion
E	Evil twin

Question 4 Explanation:

If the customer wants to use their own router, the modem/router combo unit must be set to bridge mode (sometimes call passthrough mode).

Question 5

What is the width of a standard equipment rack in a datacenter? (ID-NTIA-52)

A	24 inches
B	12 inches
C	19 inches
D	16 inches

Question 6

The main server for your organization is located in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. You have an office in Calgary, Alberta, Canada. Which of the following virtual private network (VPN) connection should you use to connect the main server to the branch office in Calgary? (ID-NTIA-116)

A	Host-to-site
B	Host-to-host
C	Extranet
D	Site-to-site
E	Branch-to-server

Question 7

Which of the following technologies is typically associated with virtual PBX services? (ID-NTIA-89)

A	Round-robin DNS
B	Voice over IP
C	CARP
D	Quality of service

Question 8

A network room that is equipped with a fingerprint scanner that authenticates the user at the entrance is using which of the following types of technology? (ID-NTIA-14)

A	Hand geometry
B	Single sign-on (SSO)
C	Tamper detection
D	Biometrics
E	Pattern recognition

Question 9

Your company has spare network equipment to be used in an emergency. In order to minimize downtime, which of the following actions should your IT department take? (ID-NTIA-163)

A	Update the firmware and drivers on spare network equipment regularly.
B	Keep purchasing new spare equipment.
C	Instead of replacing current units during failures, use parts from the spare units to fix the current unit.
D	Do nothing and keep the spare nearby for an emergency.
E	Store all spare equipment in a sepearete office building for extra protection.

Question 9 Explanation:

Some companies have the bright idea of having spare units, but fail to update firmware and OS. When the spares are needed, technicians have to update the firmware before installing the replacement. In some cases, such as Windows Servers, which never have been updated may result in driver failure and may take several hours/days to get the system back in running. Always update your spares!

Question 10

Which Windows tool uses ICMP messages and manipulates IPv4 time-to-live values to illustrate the route packets take through an internetwork? (ID-NTIA-77)

A	Route
B	Tracert
C	Netstat
D	Nslookup
E	Ping

Question 11

Which of the following attack types involves the modification of a legitimate software product? (ID-NTIA-91)

A	Evil twin
B	Logic bomb
C	Social engineering
D	Wardriving

Question 12

Which of the following RAID levels will not provide fault tolerance? (ID-NTIA-106)

A	RAID 0
B	RAID 5
C	RAID 1
D	RAID 10

Question 13

Which of the following best describes geofencing? (ID-NTIA-113)

A	Something you do
B	Something you know
C	Something you have
D	Somewhere you are

Question 14

Which of the following technique can be used to scan multiple computers on a network for an open TCP or UDP port? (ID-NTIA-104)

A	Port scanning
B	Brute-force
C	War driving
D	Bluejacking
E	Port sweeping

Question 15

A company runs Linux servers in its own datacenter and also on a popular public cloud service provider. The servers hosted by the cloud provider can only be accessed with proper authorization and are only accessed by the company’s datacenter. Which of the following BEST describes the type of cloud architecture being used? Choose all correct answers. (ID-NTIA-200)

A	Public
B	IaaS
C	Hybrid
D	Private
E	PaaS
F	SaaS

Question 16

How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network? (ID-NTIA-72)

A	16
B	15
C	8
D	17

Question 16 Explanation:

An IP address has 32 bits. In this example, if 17 bits are allocated to the network identifier, 15 bits are left for the host identifier.

Question 17

Which of the following protocols do most man-in-the-middle attack (MITM) attacks utilize? (ID-NTIA-179)

A	ARP
B	SIP
C	FTP
D	SCP

Question 18

A typical modern VOIP phone is equipped with which type of connector? (ID-NTIA-10)

A	MTRJ
B	RJ11
C	RJ45
D	ST
E	F-type

Question 19

A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages? (ID-NTIA-06)

A	SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK
B	SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK
C	SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
D	SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK

Question 19 Explanation:

Remember the three-way handshake.

Question 20

Which of the following DNS record would you use if sanuja.com is exculsively hosted on a server that only has an IPv6? (ID-NTIA-123)

A	A
B	AAAA
C	MX
D	TXT
E	NS

Question 20 Explanation:

Note AAAA record takes IPv6 host information.

Question 21

All of the following protocols are used to secure virtual private network (VPN) connections except _____________. (ID-NTIA-125)

A	PPTP
B	FTPS
C	IPsec
D	L2TP

Question 22

A secured government building that scans the faces of incoming people and compares them to a database of authorized entrants is using which of the following types of technology? (ID-NTIA-94)

A	Tamper detection
B	Geofencing
C	Pattern recognition
D	Biometrics
E	Face geometry

Question 23

You work for a large organization and your company occupies several floors of a downtown office building. You were told one of the network printers is malfunctioning. Which documentation most likely contains the tracking information about the printer such as the physical location (floor number, room, etc)? (ID-NTIA-49)

A	Logical network diagram
B	Asset management files
C	Physical network diagram
D	Circuit diagrams
E	Wiring schematic

Question 24

Which of the following is the best way to detect and discourage insider the threat on a large scale infrastructure such as government IT networks? (ID-NTIA-61)

A	Install and maintain advanced enterprise firewall applications.
B	Physical inspection of each site/workstation.
C	Perform frequent security and vulnerability updates.
D	Perform frequent IT audits.
E	Configure advance intrusion detection and firewall rules on the main datacenter.

Question 24 Explanation:

Insider the threat is when someone who is already authorized to use organizations' network infrastructure abuse the system. The best option in large scale operations such as government agencies is to perform frequent audits.

Question 25

Which of the following terms describes the process by which a client user or computer requests that it be issued a certificate, either manually or automatically? (ID-NTIA-95)

A	Certification
B	Authentication
C	Encryption
D	Enrollment
E	Authorization

Question 26

Which of the following security mechanisms dynamically assigns a Layer 2 address and restricts traffic only to that Layer 2 address? (ID-NTIA-162)

A	802.1x
B	NAC
C	ACL
D	NAT
E	Sticky MAC

Question 27

A SAN serves out storage to a company’s virtual environment and provides low-level disk access. The company wants to use its existing IP network and equipment to access the virtual disks. Which of the following network connection types would BEST accomplish this task? (ID-NTIA-180)

A	CIFS
B	iSCSI
C	InfiniBand
D	Fibre Channel

Question 28

Which network topology requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations? (ID-NTIA-73)

A	Ring
B	Star
C	Ad hoc
D	Mesh
E	Bus

Question 29

Based on the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following statement on broadcast and collision domains is true? (ID-NTIA-102)

A	It is impossible to have a collision domain in a wired (LAN) network infrastructure.
B	Broadcast domains occur in layer 1 while collision domains occur in layer 2.
C	Both broadcast and collision domains occur at layer 2.
D	It is impossible to have a collision domain in a wireless network infrastructure.
E	Collision domains occur in layer 1 while broadcast domains occur in layer 2.

Question 30

This device enables administrators of enterprise wireless networks to manage multiple access points from a central location. (ID-NTIA-12)

A	Network firewall
B	Demarcation point
C	Wireless endpoint
D	Wireless controller
E	Demarcation point

Question 31

The web server hosting sanuja.com has a secure web application called Senawa. You have set up the server with Senawa assigned to the port number 123456 for remote web access. In order for you to access Senawa from a remote office, which of the following URLs should you use? (ID-NTIA-127)

A	http://sanuja.com/123456
B	https://sanuja.com/123456
C	https://sanuja.com:123456
D	http://sanuja.com:123456
E	None of the answers are correct because you cannot assign random port numbers.

Question 32

An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network, however, the corporate policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. Which of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without breaking the corporate policy? (ID-NTIA-157)

A	DHCP reservation
B	DHCP exclusion
C	DHCP option
D	DHCP restriction
E	DHCP relay

Question 33

You were advised to set up a new storage area network for a business, but you must use the existing infrastructure. Which of the following storage standards should you use? (ID-NTIA-135)

A	NAS
B	iSCSI
C	Fibre Channel
D	InfinitiBand

Question 33 Explanation:

Why not iSCSI? Because iSCSI is not a storage standard. ISCSI is a transport layer protocol and NAS is a storage standard.

Question 34

If a workstation has the IP address 192.168.1.55/24, which of the following is the most likely IP address of the router that is connected to the workstation? (ID-NTIA-142)

A	192.168.0.55
B	255 255 255.0
C	255 255 255.0
D	192.168.1.0
E	192.168.1.1

Question 35

Which of the following syslog message severity levels indicates that a system is unusable? (ID-NTIA-80)

A	0
B	4
C	2
D	1
E	3

Question 35 Explanation:

Code 0 is the most severe,

Question 36

Which of the following defines when Dhillon, an attacker, attempts to monitor wireless traffic in order to perform malicious activities? (ID-NTIA-150)

A	XSS
B	Directory traversal
C	Wardriving
D	SQL injection
E	Packet sniffing

Question 37

Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specifications calls for the use of copper cable? (ID-NTIA-42)

A	10GBase-ER
B	10GBase-LX4
C	10GBase-CX4
D	10GBase-LR
E	10GBase-SR

Question 38

A Toronto hockey facility requested a guest wireless access system. Owners want to issue their guests vouchers with WiFi access codes that include expirations (time limits). Which of the following is the best choice to meet this requirement? (ID-NTIA-121)

A	Port security
B	MAC filtering
C	WAP
D	Captive portal
E	NAC

Question 39

A technician wants to prevent an unauthorized host from connecting to the network via Ethernet. Which of the following is a Layer 2 access control the technician should implement? (ID-NTIA-148)

A	Access control lists
B	Captive portal
C	Port security
D	WPA2

Question 40

Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session? (ID-NTIA-04)

A	END
B	SYN
C	FIN
D	URG
E	PSH

Question 41

A technician is planning a remote-access strategy to manage routers and switches on a dedicated management network. The management network is segregated from the production network and uses site-to-site VPN connections. Some of the equipment does not support encryption. Which of the following should the technician choose that all the equipment would support? (ID-NTIA-173)

A	Telnet
B	IPSec
C	SSH
D	SSL

Question 42

In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the following symbol represent? (ID-NTIA-02)

A	A router
B	A switch
C	A gateway
D	A hub

Question 43

All of the following items are fault tolerance mechanisms except ______________. (ID-NTIA-114)

A	SNMP
B	UPS
C	Clustering
D	RAID 1

Question 43 Explanation:

Simple Network Monitoring Protocol (SNMP)

Question 44

When connecting two switches together in a LAN, which of the following protocols should you use to increase speed and fault tolerance? (ID-NTIA-141)

A	LACP
B	BGP
C	SIP
D	LLDP

Question 44 Explanation:

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)

Question 45

A server with Microsft Windows Server Datacentre edition is set up as a Domain Controller and primary gateway between all computers and devices within the LAN infrastructure. Which of the following networking devices offers the ability to increase both performance and security? (ID-NTIA-136)

A	Load balancer
B	Enterprise firewall
C	IDS
D	Wireless controller
E	Proxy server

Question 46

Your company is moving to a new building. After the site survey, you decided to install 25 wireless access points (AP) in drop ceilings across four floors. Which of the following would be the most efficient method for powering 25 APs? (ID-NTIA-187)

A	Power distribution unit
B	Power-over-Ethernet switch
C	Powerline extender
D	Ethernet power controller
E	Ethernet-over-power adapter

Question 47

A company decides to deploy customer-facing, touch-screen kiosks. The kiosks appear to have several open source service ports that could potentially become compromised. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to protect the kiosks? (ID-NTIA-131)

A	Create a new network segment with ACLs, limiting kiosks’ traffic with the internal network.
B	Install honeypots on the network to detect and analyze potential kiosk attacks before they occur.
C	Create a secondary NAT and connect the kiosks on it hence limit kiosks' ability to access the main network.
D	Enable switchport security on the ports to which the kiosks are connected to prevent network-level attacks.
E	Install an IDS to monitor all traffic to and from the kiosks.

Question 48

Which of the following parameters enables you to specify the number of messages the ping tool transmits? (ID-NTIA-29)

A	-a
B	-i
C	-t
D	-n

Question 49

In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the following symbol represent? (ID-NTIA-07)

A	A gateway
B	A router
C	A switch
D	A hub

Question 50

Disk striping with distributed parity is used in which RIAD level? (ID-NTIA-105)

A	RAID 10
B	RAID 5
C	RAID 1
D	RAID 0

Question 51

Which of the following security protocols can authenticate users without transmitting their passwords over the network? (ID-NTIA-31)

A	Kerberos
B	LDAP
C	TKIP
D	802.1X
E	Radius

Question 52

This function can be interfered with by a DNS poisoning attack. (ID-NTIA-96)

A	IP address resolution
B	Password protection
C	Name resolution
D	Network switching

Question 53

Which of the following can be done to implement network device hardening? Choose all correct answers. (ID-NTIA-128)

A	Perform VLAN hopping
B	Implement spanning tree
C	Perform backups
D	Change default admin password
E	Patch and update
F	Enable port mirroring

Question 54

Which of the following bridging types has never been used on Ethernet local area networks (LANs)? (ID-NTIA-87)

A	Transparent
B	Multiport
C	Source route
D	Store and forward

Question 55

Which of the following command-line utilities can only run on Unix and Linux systems? (ID-NTIA-20)

A	netstat
B	tracert
C	ifconfig
D	ping
E	ipconfig

Question 56

During a weekend event, several people reported they were unable to get onto the wireless network. On Monday, the technician could not find a problem. Which of the following is the most likely cause? (ID-NTIA-194)

A	Overcapacity
B	Channel overlap
C	Cross talk
D	Wrong passphrase

Question 57

Which of the following is a disadvantage of migrating data to a SaaS cloud service? (ID-NTIA-143)

A	Loss of full control over data resources
B	Increased malware exposure
C	Incompatibility with the current network
D	Decreased performance of the internal network
E	Inconsistent data accessability

Question 58

Which of the following types of interference on a twisted pair network are designed to be prevented by the twists in the wire pairs inside the cable? (ID-NTIA-100)

A	Signal attenuation
B	EMI
C	Latency
D	Crosstalk

Question 59

In Windows Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), which protocol is used for authentication of internal clients? (ID-NTIA-15)

A	RADIUS
B	Kerberos
C	WPA2
D	EAP-TLS

Question 60

Which of the following switch types immediately forwards frames after looking at only the destination address? (ID-NTIA-43)

A	Source route
B	Destination switch
C	Store-and-forward
D	Cut-through

Question 61

Which of the following commands enables you to view the ARP table stored in memory? (ID-NTIA-82)

A	arp -s
B	arp -a
C	arp -c
D	arp -t
E	arp -d

Question 62

Which of the following is not one of the typical heights for devices mounted in IT equipment racks? (ID-NTIA-13)

A	2 unit
B	4 unit
C	3 unit
D	1 unit

Question 62 Explanation:

Typically rack-mountable network equipments have a height of 1U, 2U or 4U. But you may rarely come across unusual units with odd values (other than 1U) such as 3U or 5Us server cases.

Question 63

Which of the following Windows applications would you most likely use to create a baseline of system or network performance? (ID-NTIA-38)

A	ntop
B	Network Monitor
C	Syslog
D	Performance Monitor
E	Event Viewer

Question 64

What is the valid range of numbers for the ephemeral client ports used by the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (ID-NTIA-67)

A	1024 to 49151
B	49152 through 65535
C	1 through 1024
D	1023 through 65534

Question 64 Explanation:

Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535 and this range dose not include already registred ports and commonly used standard ports.

Question 65

To increase speed and availability, a high-traffic web application was split into three servers recently and moved behind a load balancer. Which of the following should be configured on the load balancer to allow for a single destination? (ID-NTIA-188)

A	SIP
B	NAT
C	VIP
D	PAT

Question 65 Explanation:

Virtual IP (VIP)

Question 66

A technician has installed a Linux server in the tax office. The server can access most of the resources on the network, but it cannot connect to another server that has a share for backup. The technician learns that the target server is on a different subnet. Which of the following tools should the technician use to ensure the Linux server can reach the backup location? (ID-NTIA-146)

A	ifconfig
B	traceroute
C	route
D	dig
E	netstat

Question 67

What topology is used when devices are connected in a LAN via an Ethernet switch? (ID-NTIA-117)

A	Bus
B	Mesh
C	Star
D	Point-to-point
E	Ring or circular

Question 68

A company’s web-based application has a database that is set up for high availability in case of a failure. Which of the following is necessary to achieve this type of setup? (ID-NTIA-199)

A	A static IP pointing to the passive DB
B	A virtual IP pointing to the active DB
C	A private IP pointing to the web proxy
D	A private IP pointing to the web front end

Question 69

Which of the following is the range of IPv4 addresses that Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server? (ID-NTIA-69)

A	192.168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255
B	224.0.0.0 to 224.0.255.255
C	10.0.0.0 to 10.0.255.255
D	169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255

Question 70

Most enterprise servers have dual power supplies. Which of the following mode provides power fault tolerance? (ID-NTIA-53)

A	Redundant mode
B	Individual mode
C	High-efficiency mode
D	Combined mode
E	Hot backup mode

Question 70 Explanation:

In combined mode, if one PSU fails or one power circuit fails, the entire system will lose power. Please note that different hardware manufactures may use their own terminology to describe redundant mode (for example backup mode). But the correct technical term is the redundant mode.

Question 71

If you are a System Administrator for a critical high availability IT infrastructure, which of the following types of patches you would least likely to install unless there is a specific reason to do so? (ID-NTIA-79)

A	Vulnerability patch
B	Operating system update
C	BOIS firmware patch
D	Driver update
E	Feature change

Question 71 Explanation:

If the system is working as it should, updating drivers may lead to instability. Unless there is a bug in the drivers, most IT professionals will postpone for forgo driver updates. Feature updates typically do not lead to instabilities. Other listed updates above are critical to keeping all systems running smoothly.

Question 72

The _____________ specifies the amount of time needed to restore a server from the most recent backup if it should fail. (ID-NTIA-109)

A	BCP
B	MIB
C	RPO
D	RTO
E	RAID

Question 72 Explanation:

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Question 73

In a public key infrastructure (PKI), which half of a cryptographic key pair is never transmitted over the network? (ID-NTIA-16)

A	The public key
B	The ticket granting key
C	The private key
D	The secure key
E	The session key

Question 74

____________ is the configuration that disables the NAT feature on the modem and allows a router to function as a DHCP server without an IP Address conflict. (ID-NTIA-175)

A	DOCSIS
B	Bridge mode
C	ADSL
D	Double NAT
E	Jumbo frame

Question 75

An employee wishes to use a personal cell phone for work-related purposes, including storage of sensitive company data, during long business trips. Which of the following is needed to protect BOTH the employee and the company? (ID-NTIA-145)

A	Real-time remote monitoring of the phone’s activity and usage
B	A consent to monitoring policy covering company audits of the personal phone
C	An AUP covering how a personal phone may be used for work matters
D	An NDA ensuring work data stored on the personal phone remains confidential

Question 76

Which of the following wireless security protocols was substantially weakened by its initialization vector? (ID-NTIA-170)

A	WPA
B	PEAP
C	WEP
D	WPA2

Question 76 Explanation:

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

Question 77

A network administrator has deployed a secure wireless network that authenticates using Active Directory network credentials so individual users are uniquely identified when connected to the WLAN. Which of the following wireless technologies has the administrator configured? (ID-NTIA-181)

A	PSK
B	EAP-PEAP
C	CCMP-AES
D	WEP

Question 78

Which of the following, originally created for the UNIX sendmail program, is now a standard for message logging that enables tools that generate, store, and analyze log information to work together? (ID-NTIA-22)

A	Syslog
B	Netstat
C	Top
D	Netmon

Question 79

A request is made to open an additional port on a firewall. The request is approved, and the port is opened. Which of the following BEST describes this process? (ID-NTIA-183)

A	Project management
B	Change management
C	Standard operating procedure
D	Process management

Question 80

The IT manager at a small firm is in the process of renegotiating an SLA with the organization’s ISP. As part of the agreement, the organization will agree to a dynamic bandwidth plan to provide 300 Mbps of bandwidth. However, if the ISP determines that a host on the organization’s internal network produces malicious traffic, the ISP reserves the right to reduce available bandwidth to 5 Mbps. Which of the following policies is being agreed to in the SLA? (ID-NTIA-174)

A	Data usage limits
B	Bandwidth quotas
C	Session hijacking
D	Blocking
E	Throttling

Question 81

In order to hide the internal IP addresses (LAN) of devices across WAN, which of the following should you configure? (ID-NTIA-158)

A	QoS
B	NAT
C	RIP
D	DMZ
E	DDoS

Question 82

What cloud service provides hardware (such as servers) and preconfigured operating systems (OS) by enableing you to select the OS you want to install? (ID-NTIA-119)

A	IaaS
B	PaaS
C	SaaS
D	Hosted
E	VPN

Question 82 Explanation:

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is a type of cloud computing offering in which a service provider delivers a platform to clients, enabling them to develop, run, and manage business applications without the need to build and maintain the infrastructure such software development processes typically require.

Question 83

A Windows workstation failed to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. Which of the following IP address most likely assigned to this workstations' port? (ID-NTIA-71)

A	192.168.1.1
B	175.168.0.255
C	175.255.255.255
D	169.254.54.5
E	192.168.0.1

Question 83 Explanation:

It within the APIPA range which is 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254.

Question 84

A project lead is reviewing the statement of work for an upcoming project that is focused on identifying potential weaknesses in the organization’s internal and external network infrastructure. As part of the project, a team of external contractors will attempt to employ various attacks against the organization. The statement of work specifically addresses the utilization of an automated tool to probe network resources in an attempt to develop logical diagrams indication weaknesses in the infrastructure. The scope of activity as described in the statement of work is an example of ____________. (ID-NTIA-147)

A	social engineering
B	friendly DoS
C	session hijacking
D	penetration testing
E	vulnerability scanning

Question 85

Which of the following types of attacks is characterized by encrypting data and locking out a user from access to certain data within a workstation? (ID-NTIA-184)

A	Phishing
B	Ransomware
C	DDoS
D	Session hijacking
E	Spoofing

Question 86

Which of the following is associated with the technique for prioritizing traffic by tagging packets based on their content? (ID-NTIA-90)

A	IPv6
B	VoIP
C	CARP
D	QoS
E	SSL

Question 87

Which utility is the easiest to use for identifying a malfunctioning router on a network? (ID-NTIA-45)

A	netstat
B	ifconfig
C	ping
D	traceroute

Question 88

A standard network rack is typically ruled vertically using which of the following measurements? (ID-NTIA-21)

A	Units
B	Millimeters
C	Inches
D	Centimeters
E	Number of screw holes

Question 88 Explanation:

Rack diagrams use vertical measurement called units, each of which is 1.75 inches.

Question 89

Which of the following well-known ports do you use to configure outgoing mail on a POP3 email client? (ID-NTIA-01)

A	80
B	25
C	143
D	989
E	110

Question 90

Which of the following is a system of notation that uses base 16 rather than base 10? (ID-NTIA-156)

A	Hex
B	Octal
C	Binary
D	CIDR

Question 91

The NetBIOS is part of which layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (ID-NTIA-74)

A	Transport
B	Session
C	Network
D	Physical
E	Data Link
F	Application
G	Presentation

Question 92

Which of the following devices often provides diagnostic testing capabilities at the demarcation point of a leased line wide area network (WAN) service? (ID-NTIA-167)

A	AAA server
B	SIP trunk
C	Smart jack
D	Media converter
E	SONET

Question 93

Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (ID-NTIA-64)

A	Router
B	Switch
C	Bridge
D	Hub

Question 94

What connector would you use with RS-232? (ID-NTIA-118)

A	USB 3.0
B	RC5
C	RJ45
D	USB 2.0
E	DB9

Question 94 Explanation:

DB9 and DB15 style connectors are also used in VGA monitors.

Question 95

Typically group membership is used in this security procedure. (ID-NTIA-111)

A	Accounting
B	Auditing
C	Authentication
D	Authorization
E	TGS

Question 96

When a user swipes a smartcard through a reader to log on to a Windows RDP session, which of the following actions is the user performing? (ID-NTIA-85)

A	Authorization
B	Auditing
C	Accounting
D	Authentication

Question 97

Which of the following types of cable, when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap? (ID-NTIA-11)

A	Coaxial
B	Shielded twisted pair
C	Multimode fiber optic
D	Single-mode fiber optic
E	Unshielded twisted pair

Question 98

Which of the following DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology can adjust its transmission speed based on line conditions? (ID-NTIA-166)

A	RADSL
B	IDSL
C	VDSL
D	HDSL

Question 98 Explanation:

Rate-Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line (RADSL)

Question 99

A technician is configuring a printer for a client. The technician connects the printer to the network, but is unsure how to determine its switchport. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to locate the switchport? (ID-NTIA-126)

A	Configure port security on the switch.
B	Set up an SSH session to the desktop.
C	Reference the ARP table in the router.
D	Perform a DNS lookup on the server.

Question 100

What is the function of the tool shown in the following figure? (ID-NTIA-78)

Image Credit: https://www.tequipment.net/ FlukeNetworks52801009.html

A	To attach a bulk cable end to an RJ45 connector, you use the tool to squeeze the connector closed, forcing the wire ends to contact the connector’s pins.
B	By touching the end of the tool to a copper cable, you can detect and measure the electrical current flowing through it.
C	By connecting the clips to pins in a punchdown block, you can access telephone circuits in order to test them or place telephone calls.
D	When you place the tool at one end of a wire, it generates a tone that can be detected at the other end.

Question 100 Explanation:

This is known as lineman's handset or more commonly known as a butt-set.

Question 101

A network technician notices that switches of the same model have different commands and security features while administering them. Which of the following hardening techniques should the technician perform on a regular schedule to ensure all switches have the same features and security functionality? (ID-NTIA-182)

A	Verify the firmware file hash
B	Change the default credentials
C	Apply patches and updates
D	Disable unused switchports

Question 102

Which of the following protocol is used by web browsers to communicate with web servers? (ID-NTIA-56)

A	SSL
B	SMTP
C	HTTP
D	HTML
E	FTP

Question 103

A content filter is set to analyze XML and JSON that users access from the Internet. At which of the following OSI layers is this analysis taking place? (ID-NTIA-132)

A	Layer 4
B	Layer 7
C	Layer 2
D	Layer 5
E	Layer 1
F	Layer 6
G	Layer 3

Question 103 Explanation:

Layer 6 is the presentation layer.

Question 104

A VoIP system will require 23 concurrent voice channels and one signaling channel. Which of the following types of WAN service would provide the best connectivity to the PSTN? (ID-NTIA-134)

A	PRI
B	BRI
C	E1/E3
D	DSL

Question 104 Explanation:

PRI (Primary Rate Interface)

Question 105

Sanuja installed six Windows computers in his home network connected to a switch and a cable modem/router that provides access to the Internet. One of the computers is able to connect to other computers and internal NAS but cannot connect to the Internet. Which of the following parameters on the malfunctioning computer will Sanuja most likely have to change to resolve this problem? (ID-NTIA-171)

A	IP address
B	Default gateway
C	Subnet mask
D	MAC address

Question 105 Explanation:

Subnet mask should be correct since the computer can communicate with the NAS and the other computers in the LAN.

Question 106

Which of the following types of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) virtual private network (VPN) connections provides the most comprehensive access to the remote network? (ID-NTIA-58)

A	SSL portal
B	SSL tunnel
C	SSL client
D	SSL gateway

Question 107

Which of the following Windows commands enables you to delete the entire ARP cache? (ID-NTIA-83)

A	arp -d *
B	arp -a
C	arp -s
D	arp -c *

Question 107 Explanation:

Note, arp -d command is for deleting cache entries, and by running it with the asterisk wildcard, the command deletes all of the entries in the cache.

Question 108

Which of the following types of keys is included in a digital certificate? (ID-NTIA-18)

A	Secured
B	Preshared
C	Public
D	Private
E	Privileged

Question 109

You were advised to replace a failed network switch in a datacenter. Which of the following would you use to determine the precise location of the device? (ID-NTIA-107)

A	Building blueprints
B	Wiring schematic
C	Network map
D	Logical diagram
E	Rack diagram

Question 110

Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (ID-NTIA-63)

A	IGMP
B	ICMP
C	IP
D	IMAP

Question 111

A network administrator is testing connectivity at a new corporate site. The site has a wireless guest as well as a wired employee network. After verifying connectivity, the administrator checks link speeds by using a speed testing website. The speed testing website shows lower download and upload speeds for the wired network than the wireless network. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? (ID-NTIA-172)

A	There is less local congestion on the wireless network
B	The wireless access points were misconfigured
C	The testing server for the wired network was farther away
D	The firewall is configured to throttle traffic to specific websites

Question 111 Explanation:

This question is extracted out of a real Network+ exam. The answer is contested by some experts.

Question 112

Installing an electrical generator to a datacenter is an example of which of the following fault tolerance concepts? (ID-NTIA-54)

A	Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
B	Power looping
C	Dual power supplies
D	Power redundancy
E	Redundant circuits

Question 112 Explanation:

You may have thought Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS). A UPS is a device that uses battery power, not a generator and it is not meant to supply power for a long period of time. A well-planned data center should have, power generators, UPS devices and power conditioning units.

Question 113

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium? (ID-NTIA-23)

A	Session
B	Physical
C	Application
D	Network
E	Transport
F	Presentation
G	Data link

Question 114

NetBIOS protocol uses the port _____ general and port _____ for secure traffic. The answer is in the respective order. (ID-NTIA-139)

A	161 , 162
B	143 , 993
C	80 , 443
D	5060 , 3389
E	5060 , 5061

Question 114 Explanation:

Read the Common port numbers table at the bottom of this page.

Question 115

Which of the following routing metrics is used to determine the path of a network that utilizes RIPv2 to route traffic? (ID-NTIA-130)

A	Hop count
B	Bandwidth
C	Speed
D	Ping time
E	Distance

Question 116

The ______________ technology can maintain an account database that multiple remote access servers can employ to authenticate remote users. (ID-NTIA-41)

A	NGFW
B	IDS
C	NAS
D	RADIUS

Question 116 Explanation:

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Question 117

A VPN concentrator is an advanced type of which of the following devices? (ID-NTIA-88)

A	Router
B	Switch
C	Gateway
D	Bridge

Question 118

A typical cell tower will have microwave and cellular antennas. Which of the following network topologies do these represent? Choose all the correct answers. (ID-NTIA-159)

A	Bus
B	Mesh
C	Peer-peer
D	Point-to-multipoint
E	Ring
F	Point-to-point

Question 119

When a service fails to start on a Windows server, an entry is typically created in which of the following event logs? (ID-NTIA-65)

A	Security
B	System
C	Application
D	Setup

Question 120

Which of the following best describes the differences between VLAN hopping and session hijacking? (ID-NTIA-176)

A	VLAN hopping is the act of exploiting poor VLAN tagging. Session hijacking is a web-based attack aimed at privilege escalation.
B	VLAN hopping is a brute force attack executed to gain additional access. Session hijacking involves physically disrupting a network connection.
C	VLAN hopping involves overriding a user network connection to execute malicious commands. Session hijacking involves compromising a host to elevate privileges.
D	VLAN hopping involves the unauthorized transition from one VLAN to another to gain additional access. Session hijacking involves overriding a user’s web connection to execute commands.

Question 121

You are the IT Manager at a 150 employee small business located in downtown Vancouver. The accounting department filed a ticket claiming that they lost access to the accounting network drive. You strongly suspect an update on the firewall firmware may have changed a configuration leading to loss of access. Which documentation most likely contains the firewall configurations and access control lists information? (ID-NTIA-51)

A	Wiring schematic
B	Asset management files
C	MSConfig file
D	Physical network diagram
E	Logical network diagram

Question 122

Which of the following can a network administrator use to access a network switch using standard AAA configurations? (ID-NTIA-192)

A	Single sign-on
B	Local authentication
C	TACACS+
D	LDAP

Question 123

A hacker uses a port scanner to penetrate your organization's IT systems. Vulnerabilities at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is used for this exploit? (ID-NTIA-108)

A	Application
B	Transport
C	Network
D	Data Link
E	Session

Question 124

Which of the following security methord is most likley effective against an insdier threat? (ID-NTIA-60)

A	Motion detection
B	Smartcards
C	Video surveillance
D	Biometrics

Question 124 Explanation:

Other than video surveillance, all other options can be defeated by an insider. An insider threat is when someone already authorized to access organizations' network infrastructure performs a nefarious act.

Question 125

Multiple users in a small organization with 50 employees complained that they cannot access certain applications installed on an in-house server. What type of problem is this? (ID-NTIA-46)

A	A wide area newtwork problem
B	A system-wide problem
C	A user application problem
D	A shared resource problem
E	A network-wide problem

Question 125 Explanation:

You may argue that this can be also classified as a user application problem because the users are complaining about not having access to applications. However, the it is not the best answer because if multiple users complain they cannot access an application that is installed on a central server, it is most likely an issue with the server, thus it is a network-wide problem.

Question 126

Which of the following signal types is carried by copper cable? (ID-NTIA-66)

A	Microwave
B	Electrical
C	Fiber optic
D	Infrared

Question 127

Which of the following values could a web client use as an ephemeral port number when communicating with a web server? (ID-NTIA-26)

A	1024
B	50134
C	80
D	1999
E	995
F	23

Question 127 Explanation:

The allowed ephemeral port number values range from 49152 to 65535.

Question 128

A network technician needs to monitor the traffic going to a mission-critical server in the datacenter. Which of the following is the best method to perform this? (ID-NTIA-186)

A	Install an inline tap
B	Use port mirroring
C	Periodically view the server logs
D	Configure port aggregation
E	Use SQL injectors

Question 129

Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the IT department received a shipment of 100 laptops and docking stations. The first action the IT department took is to affix stickers with scannable barcodes to each device. Then the barcode information is linked with specific user biodata. before deploying them to the end-users. This procedure can be best described as ______________. (ID-NTIA-59)

A	hardware security
B	tamper detection
C	device hardening
D	biometrics
E	asset tracking

Question 130

The _____________ protocol provides connection-oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI model. (ID-NTIA-68)

A	IP
B	HTTP
C	TCP
D	UDP

Question 130 Explanation:

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

Question 131

Answer the following question based on the network diagram below. Assuming all Workstations receives their internal IP from the DHCP server within the router, which of the following is the most likely IP address of Workstation 5? Click on the image if it is hard to read. (ID-NTIA-36)

A	10.1.1.255
B	10.1.0.255
C	192.168.0.55
D	192.168.1.109
E	192.168.0.1

Question 132

In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found? (ID-NTIA-70)

A	Class D
B	Class B
C	Class A
D	None of the classes
E	Class C

Question 132 Explanation:

Address 127.0.0.1 is the designated IPv4 local loopback address, and as such, it is reserved.

Question 133

Which of the following DNS record defines a mail exchange server that is associated with a domain name? (ID-NTIA-124)

A	MX
B	NS
C	A
D	AAAA
E	TXT

Question 134

Which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption? (ID-NTIA-24)

A	Physical
B	Session
C	Application
D	Network
E	Presentation
F	Transport
G	Data link

Question 135

VLANs create the administrative boundaries on a switched network that are otherwise provided by which of the following devices? (ID-NTIA-33)

A	Routers
B	Firewalls
C	Bridges
D	Hubs

Question 136

Which of the following storage network technologies provides access to data using block-level storage? (ID-NTIA-120)

A	Fiber channel
B	SAN
C	NAS
D	FTP
E	Jumbo frames

Question 136 Explanation:

NAS provides File-Level Access, SAN provides Block Level Access. But in the past, CompTIA Network+ exams had NAS as the answer hence confusing a lot of people.

Question 137

A typical nexus termination point for incoming telephone and wide area network (WAN) services is known as __________. (ID-NTIA-103)

A	IDF
B	PBX
C	MDF
D	RDP
E	MTBF

Question 137 Explanation:

Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

Question 138

A network technician notices the site-to-site VPN and Internet connection have not come back up at a branch office after a recent power outage. Which of the following is an out-of-band method the technician would most likely utilize to check the branch office’s router status? (ID-NTIA-155)

A	Use a modem to console into the router
B	Walk a user through troubleshooting the connection
C	Hire a third-party contractor to go on-site
D	Travel to the branch office

Question 139

In Kerberos protocol, where is the Authenticating Service and Ticket Granting Service are held? (ID-NTIA-112)

A	RDP
B	KDC
C	Client terminal
D	Application server

Question 139 Explanation:

Key Distribution Center (KDC)

Question 140

A network engineer is designing a new IDF in an old building. The engineer determines the equipment will fit in a two-post rack, and there is power available for this equipment. Which of the following would be the FIRST issue to remediate? (ID-NTIA-151)

A	Airflow and cooling
B	Circuit labeling
C	UPS capability
D	Power redundancy

Question 141

A technician is replacing a switch at a branch office and discovers the existing backbone cable does not fit in the new switch. The fiber patch panel has circular connections. The new switch has a transceiver that accepts a smaller square adapter of two strands. Which of the following patch cables would the technician need to complete the installation? (ID-NTIA-160)

A	SC to ST
B	ST to ST
C	SC to SC
D	LC to ST
E	LC to SC

Question 142

A network technician receives a switch that is configured to support VLANs on its ports. At which of the following layers is this switch operating? (ID-NTIA-191)

A	Layer 1
B	Layer 3
C	Layer 4
D	Layer 2

Question 143

Which of the following best describes an exploit? (ID-NTIA-137)

A	An open mail relay server
B	A router with default credentials
C	An SNMPv1 private community
D	A privilege escalation script

Question 144

MAC filtering is an access control method used by which of the following types of hardware devices? (ID-NTIA-25)

A	Wireless access point
B	RADIUS server
C	Biometric systems
D	Smartcards
E	Domain controller

Question 145

After installing a Linux web server, as a prudent IT Analyst, which of the following utilities should you use to check open ports that attackers might be able to penetrate? (ID-NTIA-47)

A	iptables
B	tcpdump
C	dig
D	nmap

Question 146

Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default? (ID-NTIA-05)

A	25
B	443
C	80
D	110
E	990

Question 147

A network technician configures a firewall’s ACL to allow outgoing traffic for several popular services such as email and web browsing. However, after the firewall’s deployment, users are still unable to retrieve their emails. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue? (ID-NTIA-178)

A	Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 21, 53, 69, and 123
B	Set the firewall to operate in transparent mode
C	Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 25, 67,179, and 3389
D	Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 80,110,143, and 443

Question 148

A network administrator needs to install a border device on the network that will help ensure FTP commands are not being sent in traffic communicating on port 25. What device will allow for deep packet inspection? (ID-NTIA-149)

A	Layer 3 switch
B	Layer 7 firewall
C	Protocol analyzer
D	NAT
E	Web proxy

Question 149

The DOCSIS (specification) is used by which for the following Internet connection types? (ID-NTIA-169)

A	Cable broadband
B	DSL
C	Dial-up modem
D	ISDN

Question 149 Explanation:

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)

Question 150

Which of the following is a correct term describing the function of a switch? (ID-NTIA-34)

A	Layer 3 repeater
B	Ethernet hub
C	Layer 2 router
D	Multiport bridge

Question 151

Which of the following protocols does the Ping utility use to exchange messages with another system? (ID-NTIA-03)

A	UDP
B	ICMP
C	TCP
D	IGMP

Question 151 Explanation:

Ping operates by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo request packets to the target host and waiting for an ICMP echo reply.

Question 152

Management at a company wants to increase the bandwidth available to users after receiving several complaints. A technician reports to management that 50% of the company bandwidth is being utilized by wireless devices outside the company’s property. Given budget constraints, which of the following solutions should the technician propose to management? (ID-NTIA-189)

A	Enable WPA and change the SSID
B	Have the ISP double the bandwidth
C	Configure geofencing
D	Move from WPA2 to WEP

Question 153

IT department suspects that a rogue employee is attempting to access a print server located in an unsecured area on the main office floor. Assuming the print server is a Windows-based system, which of the following event logs can record information about both successful and failed access attempts? (ID-NTIA-62)

A	Setup
B	Security
C	System
D	Application

Question 154

What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information? (ID-NTIA-35)

A	Presentation
B	Network
C	Physical
D	Data link
E	Session
F	Application
G	Transport

Question 155

A network technician is configuring a firewall access list to secure incoming connections to an email server. The internal address of this email server is 192.168.1.143. The firewall should allow external email servers to send email to the email server. The email server also supports client access via a web browser. Only secure protocols should be used, and only the necessary ports should be open. Which of the following ACL rules should be configured in the firewall’s WAN port? Choose all the correct answers. (ID-NTIA-153)

A	Permit 192.168.1.143 port143
B	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 80
C	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 587
D	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 443
E	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 110
F	Permit 192.168.1.143 port 25

Question 155 Explanation:

SMTPS (mail) port is 587 or 465 and HTTPS (web access) is 443.

Question 156

Which of the following is not a load balancing mechanism? (ID-NTIA-30)

A	RAID 1
B	DNS round robin
C	Muti-ISP connections
D	Server clustering
E	NIC teaming

Question 156 Explanation:

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) level 1 is a fault tolerance mechanism but does not provide load balancing.

Question 157

You want to make phone calls using the Intenet via a standard analog phone. Which device enables you to use the Internet instead of the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)? (ID-NTIA-133)

A	VPN concentrator
B	UTM appliance
C	Proxy server
D	VoIP gateway

Question 158

What performance monitoring tool is shown here (click on figure to enlarge) that enables a system administrator to monitor information about processes that are currently running on a Unix/Linux server? (ID-NTIA-28)

A	ping
B	cpustat
C	top
D	monitor
E	netstat

Question 159

Which of the following commands can Sanuja use to display the number of bytes that a Windows workstation has transmitted? (ID-NTIA-99)

A	iptables
B	netstat
C	ipconfig
D	tcpdump
E	traceroute

Question 160

After deployment of a second network link to load balance the network traffic, the quality of voice calls degrades. The network administrator discovers the voice packets are arriving at uneven intervals that cannot be handled by the voice application buffer. Which of the following actions will improve the quality of the voice calls? (ID-NTIA-193)

A	Control the jitter of the affected traffic across the network links
B	Control the attenuation of the non-voice traffic across the network links
C	Control the EMI of the multimedia traffic across the network links
D	Control the latency of traffic across the network links

Question 161

A technician is diagnosing an issue with a new T1 connection. The router is configured, the cable is connected, but the T1 is down. To verify the configuration of the router, which of the following tools should the technician use? (ID-NTIA-164)

A	Multimeter
B	Cable tester
C	Loopback adapter
D	Tone generator

Question 162

Which of the following command lines will produce the output shown in the figure? Click image to enlarge. (ID-NTIA-84)

A	ping 192.168.1.1 -n 2048
B	ping 192.168.1.1 -l 2048 -t 6
C	ping 192.168.1.1 -t
D	ping 192.168.1.1 -l 2048 -t
E	ping 192.168.1.1 -l 2048 -n 6

Question 162 Explanation:

Size of the message: -l parameter = 2048 bytes
Number of messages: -n parameter = 6

Question 163

A government agency has hundreds of mobile devices for their field agents. In order to secure their IT assets and data, the agency implemented a system where these mobile devices only operate in specific field locations. If an employee tried to log into a mobile device outside of these specific field locations, the hard drive will self encrypt and the device becomes unusable. This is an example of what type of security measures? (ID-NTIA-93)

A	Tamper detection
B	Biometric
C	Geofencing
D	Asset tracking
E	Social engineering

Question 164

Which of the following wide-area networking (WAN) services provides the fastest transfer rate? (ID-NTIA-168)

A	OC-1
B	T-3
C	E-1
D	T-1

Question 165

A network technician is creating a diagram of network termination points in the building. The technician diagrammed the core network room and now needs to diagram the auxiliary network closets. Which of the following is the technician MOST likely going to add to the diagram? (ID-NTIA-198)

A	TDM
B	VRF
C	IDF
D	MDF

Question 165 Explanation:

Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

Question 166

Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standards is the oldest and therefore the most obsolete? (ID-NTIA-55)

A	SFP
B	BiDi
C	QSFP
D	GBIC

Question 166 Explanation:

Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC)

Question 167

A building is equipped with light sensors that turn off the fluorescent lights when natural light is above a certain brightness. Users report experiencing network connection issues only during certain hours. The west side of the building experiences connectivity issues in the morning hours and the east side near the end of the day. At night the connectivity issues affect the entire building. Which of the following could be the cause of the connectivity issues? (ID-NTIA-144)

A	Temperature changes are causing attenuation in copper cabling
B	EMI from the lights is interfering with the network cables
C	Network wiring is run perpendicular to electrical conduit
D	Light sensors are interfering with the network

Question 167 Explanation:

This question is extracted word-to-word from a real N10-007 exam from CompTIA. Some argue the answer should be EMI from the lights is interfering with the network cables. If the wires come in contact with one another it will cause interference, in this case, they are running one over the other instead of side by side which would eliminate the interference..

Question 168

Answer the following question based on the network diagram below. You were hired as an IT consultant and told to improve the following network. What might be something that you would recommend? Click on the image if it is hard to read. (ID-NTIA-37)

A	Add additional printers across both NATs.
B	Add a firewall between the domain controller and the router.
C	Remove the firewall between the Internet/modem and the router.
D	Remove one of the routers and if requires use VLANs to create separate subnets with specific firewall rules.

Question 169

In the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, where would the sublayer Media Access Control (MAC) fall under? (ID-NTIA-75)

A	Session
B	Presentation
C	Transport
D	Data Link
E	Network
F	Application
G	Physical

Question 170

A technician replaced a malfunctioning network switch with an identical new switch from the same vendor. The model and hardware version of the new switch matched the broken unit. The technician extracts the config files from the old unit and installs it on the new unit. After installation, the new switch boot up and shuts down itself. Considering that the hardware is identical, which of the following is the most likely cause of the failure? (ID-NTIA-161)

A	Double NAT issue
B	Damaged or malfunctioning LAN port
C	Corrupted config files or operating system
D	VLAN mismatch
E	Damaged or malfunctioning fiber port

Question 170 Explanation:

In my experience, you always take a risk when you migrate a firmware config files from one unit to another even when hardware versions match. If you have the time, it is sometimes better to reconfigure firmware of network equipment rather than loading from a backup on new equipment. The backups are useful when you need to reload the firmware to the same hardware.

Question 171

Which of the following command-line utilities is capable of performing the same basic function as traceroute or tracert? (ID-NTIA-44)

A	netstat
B	route
C	pathping
D	ping

Question 172

You were advised to fix a network issue at Foothills Hospital in Calgary. Which of the following documentation most likely contains the complete route of every cable run from the wall plate to the patch panel? (ID-NTIA-48)

A	Logical network diagram
B	Circuit diagrams
C	Wiring schematic
D	Asset management files
E	Physical network diagram

Question 173

Manuja, a new employee within a department, cannot print to any of the printers in the department or access any of the resources that others can. However, he can access the Internet. The network engineer has confirmed that Manuja’s account has been set up the same as the others. There are no access lists restricting Manuja’s access. Which of the following could be the issue for this lack of access? (ID-NTIA-129)

A	DNS server issue
B	VLAN mismatch
C	Duplex/speed mismatch
D	Spanning tree blocked ports
E	DHCP server issue

Question 174

____________ describes a system that prevents computers from logging on to a network unless they have the latest updates and antimalware software installed. (ID-NTIA-40)

A	LDAP
B	NAC
C	RADIUS
D	TKIP-RC4

Question 174 Explanation:

Network Access Control (NAC)

Question 175

Which of the following cable types exclusively is used for Thin Ethernet network segments? (ID-NTIA-32)

A	RJ-11
B	RG-58
C	RJ-45
D	RG-8

Question 176

Which encryption standard is used by CCMP? (ID-NTIA-110)

A	RC4
B	AES
C	Kerberos
D	TKIP
E	802.1X

Question 176 Explanation:

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Question 177

A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard socket. Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing? (ID-NTIA-177)

A	PAT
B	SNAT
C	STP
D	ARP
E	NAT

Question 177 Explanation:

Port Address Translation (PAT)

Question 178

Which of the following is not one of the functions provided by TACACS+? (ID-NTIA-76)

A	Authorization
B	Authentication
C	Accounting
D	Administration

Question 178 Explanation:

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

Question 179

Identification badges, key fobs, and mantraps all fall into which of the following categories of security devices? (ID-NTIA-17)

A	Port security
B	Asset tracking
C	Data security
D	Physical security

Question 180

Which of the following protocols does the ping program never use to carry its messages? (ID-NTIA-98)

A	Ethernet
B	UDP
C	IP
D	ICMP
E	TCP

Question 181

Which of the following is a feature on high availability systems that enables them to automatically detect problems and react to them? (ID-NTIA-27)

A	Snapshots
B	Backups
C	Failover
D	Cold sites

Question 181 Explanation:

Failover has been a typical automated feature of high availability systems for a long time. However, backups and cold sites are also features of high avialability syetems, but not automaically reactive.

Question 182

Which of the following best describes SNMP? (ID-NTIA-115)

A	Network management
B	Distributed server system
C	Remote connection
D	Fault tolerance
E	Site-to-site VPN

Question 182 Explanation:

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

Question 183

You are on the website sanuja.com. Sanuja also owns sanuja.net and would also like to reach sanuja.com via alias sanuja.net. What type of DNS record should you create? (ID-NTIA-122)

A	A
B	MX
C	MD
D	CNAME
E	PTR

Question 183 Explanation:

CNAME is a Canonical Name Record or Alias Record. A type of resource record in the Domain Name System (DNS), that specifies that one domain name is an alias of another canonical domain name.

Question 184

Which of the following syslog message severity levels indicates that the message is just informational? (ID-NTIA-97)

A	7
B	4
C	6
D	0
E	2

Question 185

Sanuja has been hired by a critical care medical facility (hospital) to build a local area network (LAN) to connect over 150 network devices. The medical facility administrators have advised Sanuja that they have zero tolerance for radio and electromagnetic interference (EMI). Which of the following is the best solution for this facility? (ID-NTIA-86)

A	Coaxial cabling
B	Enterrpise APs
C	Fiber-optic cabling
D	Twisted pair cabling

Question 185 Explanation:

Fiber-optic (aka optical fiber) is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and itself does not produce EMI while in operations.

Question 186

Management is concerned there is excessive traffic on the network. A network technician wants to run a quick port scan to see any systems that have open ports. Which of the following tools should be used to do this? (ID-NTIA-197)

A	tcpdump
B	netstat
C	dig
D	nmap

Question 187

In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the following symbol represent? (ID-NTIA-08)

A	Encryption key
B	Authentication server
C	VPN gateway
D	HTTPS server
E	Secure server

Question 188

A network technician downloaded new firmware for a mission-critical firewall. Which of the following should the network technician do before installing the firmware? (ID-NTIA-138)

A	Verify file size
B	Verify file hash
C	Verify file version
D	Verify file date
E	Verify file type

Question 188 Explanation:

File hash verifies to ensure the downloaded file is correct and complete. Companies like CISCO, IBM, HP, and Microsoft provides hash information on almost every downloadable update files.

Question 189

Windows remote access users with smartcards can be authenticated via which of the following protocols? (ID-NTIA-39)

A	MS-CHAPv2
B	CHAP
C	WEP
D	EAP
E	PAP

Question 189 Explanation:

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 190

Allowing data to be centrally stored and accessed by multiple devices on an isolated subnet is best understood as ________. (ID-NTIA-195)

A	FCoE
B	SAN
C	iSCSI
D	FTP
E	NAS

Question 191

Which of the following commands did a network technician run, if the network technician receives the following command output from a Linux-based machine? (ID-NTIA-196)
SANUJA.COM 430 IN mx mx1.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 5 IN mx mx2.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 430 IN mx mx10.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns1.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns2.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns3.SANUJA.COM
SANUJA.COM 521 IN NS ns4.SANUJA.COM

A	dig –t ANY SANUJA.COM
B	netstat –a SANUJA.COM
C	NMAP –t SANUJA.COM
D	iptables –f SANUJA.COM

Question 192

Which of the following wireless security protocols uses CCMP for encryption? (ID-NTIA-81)

A	WPA
B	802.1X
C	WEP
D	WPA2

Question 193

Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-connector attached to the computer? (ID-NTIA-09)

A	F-type
B	RJ45
C	MTRJ
D	BNC
E	8P8C

Question 194

A network engineer at a government agency is restricting Internet browsing on the corporate WAN to only government-related external websites. Which of the following is the best solution to achieve this goal while avoiding the need to configure this restriction on each PC? (ID-NTIA-185)

A	Web application firewall
B	VLAN restrictions
C	Content filter
D	IPS
E	VPN concentrator

Question 195

Which of the following types of wiring faults cannot be detected by a wiremap tester? (ID-NTIA-19)

A	Open circuits
B	Transposed wires
C	Split pairs
D	Short circuits

Question 195 Explanation:

It cannot detect split pairs because, in this fault situation, the pins are properly connected.

Question 196

To keep the costs down, a small business allows its employees to use their own personal laptop computers to access their network infrastructure. This type of polity is typically known as __________. (ID-NTIA-140)

A	IRP
B	SLA
C	NDA
D	BYOD

Question 196 Explanation:

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)

Question 197

The backups server connects to a NAS device using block-level storage over Ethernet. The performance is very slow, however, and the network technician suspects the performance issues are network-related Which of the following should the technician do to improve performance? (ID-NTIA-165)

A	Enable jumbo frames on the NAS and server
B	Turn off MDIX settings on the NAS and server switchports
C	Encapsulate the storage traffic in a GRE tunnel
D	Utilize UDP to eliminate packet overhead

Question 198

Which of the following telecommunications components is all but obsolete and is found only in old, analog telephone installations? (ID-NTIA-50)

A	66 block
B	Patch panel
C	110 block
D	Fiber distribution panel
E	CMTS

Question 199

A customer is reporting difficulty connecting some devices after replacing a wireless router with a new wireless 802.11 ac router. The SSID, encryption, and password are the same as the previous router. A technician goes on-site and notices the devices that are no longer connecting appear to be several years old. Which of the following is most likely the problem? (ID-NTIA-152)

A	There is a security type mismatch.
B	There is insufficient antenna power
C	There is a frequency mismatch
D	The password needs to be re-entered
E	The channel has changed

Question 200

Which of the following attack methods is associated with unprotected Wi-Fi network systems? (ID-NTIA-92)

A	Social engineering
B	Evil twin
C	Logic bomb
D	Wardriving

Question 200 Explanation:

Wardriving is an attack method that consists of driving around a neighborhood with a computer scanning for unprotected wireless networks.

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Sanuja Senanayake

CompTIA N10-007 Exam

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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 - Set I

Standing on the shoulders of giants

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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 - Set I

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