Basic concepts: basic biological themes, hierarchy of organisms, diversity and domains, genetics and evolution, adaptations, fossil record and early life, geology, reproduction, genome and speciation.

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Biology 205 (BIOL 205-UCAL) Midterm I

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Question 1

What are the three types of variations in a population represented by the following graphs?

Modified from: http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/8/84/Selectiontypes-n0_images.png

A	I. Stabilizing selection II. Directional selection III. Disruptive selection
B	I. Stabilizing selection II. Disruptive selection III. Directional selection
C	I. Directional selection II. Disruptive selection III. Stabilizing selection
D	I. Disruptive selection II. Stabilizing selection III. Directional selection
E	I. Directional selection II. Stabilizing selection III. Disruptive selection
F	I. Disruptive selection II. Directional selection III. Stabilizing selection

Question 2

According to the principles of Science, the process in which conclusions derived from observable properties is known as...

A	experimental process.
B	inductive reasoning.
C	scientific process.
D	deductive reasoning.
E	first-order reasoning or first order analysis.

Question 3

Which of the following have the full (or most) control over how a body structure is differentiated?

A	mRNAs
B	DNAs
C	RNAs
D	homeotic genes

Question 4

Allopatric speciation can also be described as...

A	Geographic speciation
B	Reproductively isolated speciation
C	Habitat speciation
D	Polyploidy speciation

Question 5

Which of the following acts as a mechanism for macroevolution?

A	Heterozygote advantage
B	Intra- and inter-sexual selection
C	Continental drift
D	Genetic drift

Question 6

Which of the following is not an evolutionary change caused by human interference?

A	Dramatic reduction in salmon population due to excessive overfishing.
B	Large variation in types of dogs (breeds) due to selective breeding.
C	Genetically modified food such as bananas that converted wild inedible fruits to consumables.
D	The better taste and large size of famed berries verses smaller wild berries.
E	Human females choosing specific traits such as eye colour and height of donors when selecting sperm from a sperm bank.

Question 7

The 3.9 billion years old ____ are the oldest known life on Earth. To help you, here is a Geology lab sample image (really bad resolution).

A	eukaryotic cells
B	bacteria
C	stromatolites
D	fungi

Question 8

The natural section mostly act at the ____ level of life's hierarchy.

A	individual
B	DNA
C	population
D	organ
E	community

Question 9

What is the ultimate source of genetic variation?

A	Gene flow
B	Mutations
C	Genetic drift
D	Introduction of new species

Question 9 Explanation:

While all of the above answers increase genetic variation in a population, mutations are the primary/ultimate source of genetic variations.

Question 10

The domain Archaea is characterized by...

A	...eukaryotic cells with mostly macroscopic unicellular organisms.
B	...eukaryotic cells with mostly macroscopic multicellular organisms.
C	...prokaryotic cells with mostly macroscopic muticellular organisms.
D	...prokaryotic cells with mostly microscopic unicellular organisms.
E	...prokaryotic cells with mostly macroscopic unicellular organisms.
F	...eukaryotic cells with mostly microscopic unicellular organisms.

Question 11

What is a gene pool?

A	The total collection of genes in a kingdom at any one time.
B	The total collection of genes in a population at any one time.
C	The total collection of genes in a family at any one time.
D	The total collection of genes in a species at any one time.

Question 12

What is gene flow?

A	It is the process in which alleles are randomly selected for fertilization.
B	It a process in which alleles from one population is transferred to another as a result of movement of individuals or gametes.
C	It the process in which natural selection either modify, delete or replicate alleles from genes.
D	It is the process in which RNA copy the DNA sequences and reproduce them by binding to proteins.

Question 13

Earth formed from a cloud of dust about 4.6 bya. Which of the following compound/element was not found immediately after the formation (~4.6 bya)?

A	nitrogen
B	water
C	carbon dioxide
D	ammonia
E	hydrogen
F	oxygen

Question 14

Which of the following best describe the reason why some pests cannot be (may not be) completely eliminated?

A	The evolutionary mechanisms may have introduced a new alleles to the population that resist pesticide.
B	The natural selection may have created new alleles that are resistant to pesticides.
C	Some individuals in a particular pest population may have the pesticide resistant alleles.
D	The environment in which the pest population live may have acted as a barrier to the pesticides' effectiveness.

Question 15

According to biologists, human DNA is very similar to that of nonhuman primates. Which of the following is the best suitable statement for the similarities between the two species?

A	Your great great (great....) grand parents must be nonhuman primates.
B	These relationships between human and nonhuman primates demonstrate unity among all living organisms.
C	nonhuman primates must have exchanged DNA with humans millions of years ago.
D	The main statement in this question itself is the evidence that we all evolved from Africa.

Question 16

Is it possible to date a rock without having the advantage of fossils?

A	Yes, because we can extrapolate the history from the type of sediments.
B	No, because there is no useful evidence for the history without living or non-living (abiotic) organisms within the rock strata.
C	Yes, because we can use radiometric dating of the sediments.
D	No, because we use fossils record for age determination.

Question 17

Which species concept rely on the concept that "each new species is a branch on the tree of life" hence a group of individuals that shares a common ancestor is a species?

A	ecological
B	phylogenetic
C	morphological
D	biological

Question 18

A scientist study a specific group of Polar Bears in Yukon, Canada. What level (type) of study is this?

A	A population study.
B	An ecosystem study.
C	A community study.
D	Organisms study.

Question 19

In order for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, it must satisfy all of the following conditions except...

A	...no natural selection.
B	...no gene flow between populations.
C	...very small population.
D	...random mating.
E	...no mutations.

Question 19 Explanation:

The population must be very large.

Question 20

How many possible combinations of chromosomes are possible in human sperm or egg due to independent assortment during meiosis?

A	23² = 529 combinations
B	23/2 = 11.5 combinations
C	23 x 2 = 46 combinations
D	2²³ = 8.39 x 10⁶ combinations
E	23 combinations

Question 21

Over last 500 million years, we experienced five mass extinctions. In each of these mass extinctions ___ of Earth's species wiped-out from habitats.

A	50% or more
B	30% or more
C	90% or more
D	100%
E	10% or more

Question 21 Explanation:

Generally 50% or more, but mass extinction does not mean that the species completely gone.

Question 22

Strictly from the genetics point of view, ___ is the change in relative frequencies of alleles in a population over generations.

A	genetic drift
B	genetic shift
C	bottleneck effect
D	evolution
E	adaptation

Question 23

Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion. Which of the following sequences correctly lists that hierarchy as it increases in complexity?

A	ecosystem, population, organ system, cell, community, molecule, organ, organism, tissue
B	cell, molecule, organ system, organ, tissue, population, organism, ecosystem, community
C	cell, molecule, organ system, organ, population, tissue, organism, ecosystem, community
D	molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem
E	molecule, tissue, cell, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem

Question 24

Which of the following groups of organisms have Eukaryotic Cells in their biological systems?

A	Plants and Animals
B	Bacteria and fungi
C	Plants and Eukarya
D	Bacteria and Archaea
E	Bacteria and Eukarya

Question 25

What is the biological definition of species?

A	A population in which whose members are genetically related to each other.
B	A group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed.
C	A group of organisms whose members have the potential to reproduce either by sexual or asexual reproduction.
D	A group of organisms living in the same community.

Question 26

What is the correct arrangement of the following stages (first to last) that lead to the origin of life?
I. Polymerization of monomers
II. Replication of RNA molecules and passing of biological information from one cell to another.
III. Abiotic synthesis of important molecules from simpler chemicals in the atmosphere.
IV. Enclosure within a lipid membrane ("protocells"), which maintained a distinct internal environment.

A	III (first to occur) , I , IV , II (last to occur)
B	III (first to occur) , IV , I , II (last to occur)
C	I (first to occur) , III , IV , II (last to occur)
D	I (first to occur) , IV , III , II (last to occur)
E	III (first to occur) , I , II , IV (last to occur)
F	I (first to occur) , III , II , IV (last to occur)

Question 27

According to the following table, what are the genotype frequencies for all three possible outcomes?

Table 1: Gene pool of the original rose plants.
Red is dominant and White is recessive.

A	RR = 0.62 , Rr = 0.30 , rr = 0.04
B	RR = 0.62 , Rr = 0.30 , rr = 0.08
C	RR = 0.64 , Rr = 0.32 , rr = 0.04
D	RR = 0.64 , Rr = 0.30 , rr = 0.08
E	RR = 0.60 , Rr = 0.32 , rr = 0.08
F	RR = 0.60 , Rr = 0.36 , rr = 0.04

Question 27 Explanation:

RR = 384/600 = 0.64 , Rr = 192/600 = 0.32 , rr = 24/600 = 0.04
Note that you divide possible number of genotypes by the total number of plants for the each frequency.

Question 28

What is the smallest from of life (fundamental unit of life) in the biosphere?

A	Bacteria
B	Cell
C	Nucleus
D	Nucleotide
E	Organelle
F	DNA

Question 29

What is natural selection?

A	It is the process in which the current organism differentiate from its' ancestors.
B	It is the process in which genetic mutation occur and lead to new forms of life.
C	It is the process in which the dominant hunters eliminates another group of organisms.
D	It is the process in which certain inherited traits are survived and reproduced than the other traits.
E	It is a process in which a new forms of traits are developed into a phenotype (as opposed to just genotypes).

Question 30

What is the primary difference between an Eukaryotic cell and a Prokaryotic cell?

A	Eukaryotic cells are specialized cells while Prokaryotics cells can be specialized into any type of cell.
B	Prokaryotics cells are the most common type of cells in the living world that made up of plants, animals and fungi. The Prokaryotics cells are only found in bacterias.
C	Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles, such as the nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not.
D	Eukaryotic cells are usually unicelluar and thought to be responsible for early life on Earth while Prokaryotics cells evolved later in the biological evolution.

Question 30 Explanation:

Additional info: Prokaryotic cells are associated with life on early Earth and eukaryotic cells came into being through the process of evolution.

Question 31

__I__ is the scientific study of life which undergoes change through __II__.

A	I. Ecology II. genetic drift
B	I. Biology II. genetic drift
C	I. Biology II. natural selection
D	I. Biology II. evolution
E	I. Ecology II. natural selection

Question 32

According to the following table, what are the allele frequencies in this gene pool (last row in the table, but remember, there are only two frequencies)?

Table 1: Gene pool of the original rose plants.
Red is dominant and White is recessive.

A	R = 0.96 and r = 0.04
B	R = 0.37 and r = 0.63
C	R = 0.04 and r = 0.96
D	R = 0.63 and r = 0.37
E	R = 0.20 and r = 0.80
F	R = 0.80 and r = 0.20

Question 33

Which of the following is an example of a population?

A	All the humans living in the City of Calgary.
B	All the insects living in the entire world.
C	All the dogs and cats living in the City of Calgary.
D	All the insects living in the City of Calgary.
E	All the birds living in the entire world.

Question 33 Explanation:

Note: By definition, population is a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and interbreed. Therefore the ONLY possible answer is "All the humans living in the City of Calgary."

Question 34

Which of the following situation best describes a postzygotic barrier?

A	The mating behavior of one species is completely different from the other.
B	The new offspring have a weak immune system.
C	The individual organisms are unable to produce a fertilized cell.
D	The species live in different habitat within the same area and would not meet each other.

Question 35

What do you called the supercontinent that formed near the end of Paleozoic era?

A	Diablo
B	Pangaea
C	Laurasia
D	Gondwanaland

Question 36

The oldest known fossils are __I__ and are dated to be __II__ years old.

A	I. prokaryotes II. 4.3 billion
B	I. eukaryotes II. 3.5 billion
C	I. prokaryotes II. 3.5 billion
D	I. eukaryotes II. 4.3 billion

Question 37

According to Charles Darwin, what is the mechanism for the species to differentiate from one generation to another?

A	Gene division and recombination
B	Speciation
C	Natural selection
D	Evolution
E	Sexual reproduction

Question 38

Which of the following most likely will have an impact due to natural section?

A	The eye colour of humans.
B	The amount of semen/sperms that will be ejected during an ejaculation by humans.
C	The variation in depth of view in eyesight among humans.
D	The number of brains humans could have.

Question 38 Explanation:

The natural selection primarily acts on traits that have a direct impact on reproduction and survival of the species.

Question 39

Answer the question based on the following described situation:

On 26 December 2004, undersea megathrust earthquake West of Sumatra, Indonesia resulted in a Tsunami. The waves wiped out a population of cattle (cows) on the Eastern part of Sri Lanka. However, out of 2000 cattle, about 150 were able to escape death. Since the 2004 Tsunami, the cattle population has rebounded back to almost its original level. What is the major impact on the gene pool of the new generation of cattle after the Tsunami in this particular region?

A	The population is most likely experiencing bottleneck effect, where there is a drastic reduction in genetic variations.
B	The new population most likely experiencing large scale genetic mutations due to limited partners for mating.
C	The population most likely benefited from this catastrophic event because with reduce number of individuals, there is less competition for mating.
D	The new population most likely will not survive for a long period without a gene flow between themselves and another unrelated population.
E	The population is most likely underwent extremely fast evolution.

Question 40

Genetic drift is often more pronounced in...

A	...genetically isolated populations.
B	...very large populations.
C	...sexually reproducing populations.
D	...small populations.
E	....asxually reproducing populations.
F	...geographically isolated populations.

Question 41

Recent study on the Amish populations (isolated population) in the United States exhibit what type of genetic property? (You do not need to know the information on the study to answer this question.)

A	Adaptive radiation
B	Founder effect
C	Genetic drift
D	Higher relative fitness
E	Disruptive selection

Question 41 Explanation:

Small isolated populations that interbreed will result in founder effect. Another example would be the blindness of inhabitants in Tristan da Cunha islands.

Question 42

The Darwin's theory of evolution explains...

A	...how new species adapt and evolve.
B	...genetic variation caused by mass extinctions and repopulation cycles.
C	...the origins of life plus how new species adapt and evolve.
D	...the origins of life.

Question 42 Explanation:

Note that the theory of evolution does not explain how the first species arose.

Question 43

The first life on Earth most likely emerged from utilizing energy from what type of source?

A	Nuclear energy released from binding of monomers.
B	Nuclear energy from the remaining elements within the gas cloud from the original nebula.
C	Frictional energy generated by plate tectonics in the deep sea.
D	Thermal energy from the sun.
E	Thermal energy from hydrothermal vents.

Question 44

According to the following table, what is the total number of alleles in the gene pool?

Table 1: Gene pool of the original rose plants.
Red is dominant and White is recessive.

A	1200
B	570
C	660
D	600
E	500

Question 44 Explanation:

Total = (384 x 2) + (192 x 2) + (24 x 2) = 1200

Question 45

How would you represent the frequency of homozygous dominant frequency using the Hardy-Weinberg equation?

A	pq
B	p²
C	2q
D	2pq
E	2p

Question 46

The extensive fossil record is almost always obtained through the examination of what type of rocks?

A	Sedimentary rocks
B	Metamorphic rocks
C	Igneous rocks
D	Clastic rocks
E	Punk rocks

Question 47

The outer most layer of the Earth, which forms the continents and seafloors, is known as...

A	...the crust.
B	...the outer core.
C	...the outer layer.
D	...the mantle.

Question 48

How old is the oldest known eukaryotic fossil? (You should know this roughly)

A	2.1 bya
B	1.5 bya
C	4.6 bya
D	3.5 bya

Question 49

What is adaptation?

A	It is the process which an organism enhances the probability of survival through acquired characteristics.
B	It is the process in which organisms evolve.
C	It is the process in which the new genes are produced in order to survive in a changing environment.
D	It is an inherited characteristic that enhances an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in a particular environment.

Question 50

Which of the following statements are true about speciation?

A	It is a process in which the new species are created with completely independent (100% different) characteristics from that of the original species.
B	It is the process in which two interbreeding individuals produce a zygote.
C	It is the process in which one species splits into two or more species.
D	It is the process in which DNAs react with other biochemicals to produce life.

Question 51

If two related species live in the same region, what would you expect the natural selection to act on?

A	Postzygotic barriers
B	Prezygotic barriers
C	Either because it is all depend on the type of organisms and their living environment.
D	Neither because natural selection do not act at this level of life.

Question 52

In the early 1800s, Jean Baptiste Lamarck suggested a mechanism for evolution based on the fossils record. Why was he wrong?

A	Because he assumed that inheritance traits can only be passed down to the offspring by the male population (fathers).
B	Because he refused genetic variation within the same species.
C	Because he assumed that inheritance traits also includes acquired characteristics.
D	Because he refused that the environment also pays a vital role in evolution of desired traits.

Question 53

The morphological definition of species is based on __I__ and can be applied to __II__.

A	I. potential to interbreed in nature II. fossils only.
B	I. potential to interbreed in nature II. asexually and sexually reproducing organisms.
C	I. DNA/chemical characteristics/traits II. asexually and sexually reproducing organisms.
D	I. physical characteristics/traits II. fossils only.
E	I. physical characteristics/traits II. asexually and sexually reproducing organisms.

Question 54

The fossils record indicates the organisms evolved...

A	...by accumulating small changes over a a long period of time.
B	...by sexual reproduction at first and later by both sexual and asexual reproduction.
C	...through sudden changes in gene frequencies.
D	...by interbreeding.

Question 55

Which of the following can most likely be a vestigial structure of humans?

A	Appendix
B	Nails
C	Spinal cord
D	Hypothalamus

Question 56

What is an ecosystem?

A	All the living organisms and their interaction among each other.
B	An isolated system of organisms in which a specific population lives.
C	A specific group of species, such as humans, living under a specific area and their interactions among living organisms.
D	All the organisms in a specific area along with nonliving factors with which they interact.
E	A specific area of study used to derive a hypothesis or a theory.

Question 56 Explanation:

You can also define an ecosystem as a biological community and its physical interactions.

Question 57

Which of the following was not used by Charles Darwin to prove this theory of evolution by natural selection?

A	Ideas and concepts taken out of the book: Principles of Geology by Charles Leyell.
B	The observation he made that all species will only produce offspring than the environment can support.
C	Domesticated species like dogs in which humans have used artificial selection to produce animals with desirable traits.
D	The observation he made that members of a population often vary in their inherited traits.

Question 57 Explanation:

His observation was; all species are capable of producing more offspring than the environment can support.

Question 58

Which of the following statement is correct on natural selection?

A	It can produce new genotypes that favors the entire global population of a species.
B	It favors only the characteristics that benefit the specific population.
C	It favors characteristics in a population that fit the current local environment.
D	It can change the characteristics of a population in one of very few changes to the genetic code in a very short period of time.

Question 59

What is the difference between analogy and homology?

A	Similarity in characteristics caused by convergent evolution is known as analogy, while similarity in characteristics caused by is sharing a common ancestor known as homology.
B	Similarity in characteristics caused by one dominant allele is known as homology, while similarity in characteristics caused by two recessive alleles known as analogy.
C	Similarity in characteristics caused by convergent evolution is known as homology, while similarity in characteristics caused by is sharing a common ancestor known as analogy.
D	Similarity in characteristics caused by one dominant allele is known as analogy, while similarity in characteristics caused by two recessive alleles known as homology.

Question 60

Which of the following pairs are homologous structures?

A	Human thumb and chimpanzee arm.
B	Human limb and whale flipper.
C	Oak leaf and maple leaf.
D	Bat wing and insect wing.
E	Oak leaf and oak root.

Question 61

Even though we are closely related to primates, we (human) can live under several different environments than the primates species. This is most likely cause by ____ of humans. Choose the best answer possible.

A	advanced civilization
B	sexual reproduction
C	evolutionary adaptations
D	sudden specialization of DNA

Question 62

According to the following table, what are the two possible number of total alleles for Rr in this gene pool?

Table 1: Gene pool of the original rose plants.
Red is dominant and White is recessive.

A	323 (R) + 61 (r)
B	131 (R) + 61(r)
C	61 (R) + 323 (r)
D	61 (R) + 131 (r)
E	192 (R) + 192 (r)

Question 63

According to the following table, what is the total number of plants in this gene pool?

Table 1: Gene pool of the original rose plants.
Red is dominant and White is recessive.

A	216
B	576
C	600
D	408
E	500

Question 63 Explanation:

Total = 384 (RR) + 192 (Rr) + 24 (rr)

Question 64

What is a theory?

A	It is a conceptual model developed by a scientist before a research project is undertaken.
B	It is a proposed explanation for a set of observations.
C	It is a statement of facts supported by a large body of evidence.
D	It is an idea which is still not been proven with a body of evidence.

Question 65

How is theory different from hypothesis?

A	Theory is similar to hypothesis but it covers a broader scope of the subject than a hypothesis.
B	Theory can not be disproved with new evidence but hypothesis can be because hypothesis is a "working theory".
C	Theory and hypothesis are two terms that can be used interchangeably (same or very similar meaning).
D	Theory is used to describe fundamental principles of science while a hypothesis is used to describe first-order observable properties.
E	Theory is similar to hypothesis but it covers a specific area of the subject than a hypothesis.

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Credits: Based on the excellent class notes provided by, Dr. K. Ruckstuhl during Fall 2014.
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Sanuja Senanayake

Biology 205-University of Calgary

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Biology 205 (BIOL 205-UCAL) Midterm I

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Biology 205 (BIOL 205-UCAL) Midterm I

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Standing on the shoulders of giants