GLGY 202 – Applications of Geoscience

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Geology (GLGY 202-UCAL) Midterm Exam

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Question 1

Why does soil chronosequence important? (ID-GAM-07)

A	It can be used to generate groundwater table.
B	There is no economic reasons for soil chronosequence, but it is used in research by scientists.
C	It can be used to determine the current fertility of soils.
D	It can be used to evaluate geologic stability and conditions in the past and predict future conditions.
E	It can be used to determine the porosity and permeability of older layers, which can be used to interpret groundwater drainage patterns.

Question 2

This type of volcanoes are relatively small and formed from mostly tephra. (ID-GAM-73)

A	All of the listed types of volcanoes can have such characteristics.
B	Dome volcanoes
C	Composite volcanoes
D	Cinder cone volcanoes
E	Shield volcanoes

Question 3

Which of the following is not required in order to classify a substance as soil? (ID-GAM-01)

A	Solid earth materials that can be removed without blasting.
B	A material that can support growth of plants through allowing roots to penetrate.
C	Specific assemblage of minerals and rock fragments.
D	Earth materials that has been altered by biological processes.
E	Earth materials that has been altered by physical processes.

Question 4

What what term is used to describe the point of origin of an earthquake? (ID-GAM-42)

A	Scarp
B	Epicenter
C	Hypocenter
D	Focus
E	Foreshock

Question 5

During a subsurface study for an agricultural development project for the City of Calgary, you found the soil samples are close to 100% dry. Which of the following statement would you include in your final report as a Professional Geoscientist? (ID-GAM-58)

A	Area is not suitable for agricultural development.
B	Pore pressure within the dry zone is most likely at zero or close to zero.
C	Subsurface geology must be composed of 100% or close to 100% impermeable layers.
D	Water table must be above the dry zone.
E	Dry zone must be located within a unsaturated zone.

Question 6

Which of the following statement is correct? (ID-GAM-34)

A	Natural streams have different sediment depositional sequences (different deposits) than channelized streams.
B	Natural streams are better at controlling flash floods than channelized streams.
C	None of the answers listed here are correct.
D	Both natural streams and channelized streams tends to produce meanders.
E	Typically natural streams have much higher flow velocities than channelized streams.

Question 7

Why did Canada sold asbestos from Quebec to India as recently as 2012? (ID-GAM-62)

A	Pressure from the Indian Government to keep the Canadian mine open.
B	Political corruption within the Canadian Provincial and Federal Governments.
C	Strong independent activist who advocated for cheap building materials for India.
D	McGill University study proved that asbestos is safe for consumers.
E	There are no other cheaper alternative to asbestos in India or elsewhere.

Question 7 Explanation: 

Note: John Corbett McDonald from McGill University took money from asbestos industries to publish reports supporting the industry. However, it was the political support that allowed such activities to take place at the first place. Even today, most Canadians are in denial of corruption in Canada because we are busy pointing fingers at other countries. It wasn't India's corruption that resulted in this issue, it was Canada's corruption.

Question 8

According to the 2016 radon gas concentrations study in Calgary area by a University of Calgary research team, at least one in how many homes are over the acceptable maximum limit of radon concentration (in Calgary)? (ID-GAM-76)

A	1 in 100
B	1 in 60
C	1 in 10
D	1 in 5
E	1 in 30

Question 9

High concentration of which of the following trace element in our environment is associated with deafness? (ID-GAM-77)

A	Iodine
B	Fluorine
C	Arsenic
D	Radon
E	Manganese

Question 10

One of the movies you watched in class, a character picked up a rock and called it a dolomite. Why would you disagree with this statement? (ID-GAM-20)

A	The environment which the movie scene took place cannot be producing calcite.
B	This class is so hip and crazy.
C	Physical appearance of the rock sample is not that of calcite.
D	It could be calcite.
E	It could be quartz.

Question 11

A tsunami that travels towards the nearby coast is known as ______ and another tsunami that travels out to the deep ocean is known as ______. (ID-GAM-66)

A	local tsunami , distant tsunami
B	coastal tsunami , distal tsunami
C	high intensity tsunami , low intensity tsunami
D	Japanese tsunami , Chinese tsunami
E	low intensity tsunami , high intensity tsunami

Question 12

According to the EPA in the United States, what is the most common cause of death? (ID-GAM-75)

A	Natural and man made fires
B	Airline crashes
C	Drunk driving
D	Drowning
E	Radon gas

Question 12 Explanation: 

The second highest is the radon gas.

Question 13

Drainage control can stabilize a potentially hazardous areas by performing which of the following fundamental task? (ID-GAM-39)

A	Reducing the water flow within the subsurface hence decreasing the pore pressure within subsurface that could encourage landslides.
B	Reducing the possibility of subsurface springs within the hazardous zones hence reducing the water accumulation in the region.
C	Completely diverting all possible water drainage into the hazardous zones. Hint: It is impossible to completely divert all sources.
D	Increasing the pore pressure within the subsurface hence increasing the friction between potential failure planes and the subsurface.

Question 13 Explanation: 

This question is a bit difficult question. You should know that reducing water within subsurface sediments will also reduce the pore pressures and increase the friction between grains. This will add to the resisting force hence lowering the possibility of landslides.

Question 14

Which factors have the greatest impact against environmental law? (ID-GAM-13)

A	Sudden unexpected failures in environmental mitigation programs.
B	Natural animal activities such as bears in populated neighborhoods.
C	Political donations.
D	Wealth and power.
E	Natural environmental problems such as floods

Question 14 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 15

What cause the majority of large scale soil erosion around the world? (ID-GAM-06)

A	High slope angle or relief
B	Water runoff
C	Low temperatures and pressures
D	High temperatures and pressures
E	Boulder size sediments

Question 16

Building structures on the beach often leads to which of the following issue? (ID-GAM-64)

A	Interruption of longshore drift result in increased erosion
B	Increased in sea level
C	Subsidence
D	Increased in tidal current frequency

Question 17

Which of the following is involved in the environmental mitigation process? (ID-GAM-12)

A	Creation of a plan for land-use for the project.
B	Identification of important environmental issues.
C	Detailed evaluation of several selected sites.
D	Finding methods to minimize environmental damage.

Question 17 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 18

Subsidence can result in all of the following, except... (ID-GAM-61)

A	All of these can be caused by subsidence.
B	Flooding
C	Ground cracks
D	Change in the direction of river flows.
E	Uplift Hint: Common misconception!

Question 18 Explanation: 

Note, uplift can be caused by subsidence. If there is a local subsidence, it could result in uplift of another area as the forces in subsurface changes dramatically over period of time.

Question 19

A _____ is a hot, turbulent mixture of expanding gases and volcanic ash that flows rapidly down the side of a volcano. (ID-GAM-69)

A	mud flow
B	lava flow
C	hyaloclastic flow
D	pyroclastic flow
E	magma flow

Question 20

Which of the following type of volcano commonly produce rhyolitic magma and has a higher tendency for explosive eruptions compare to others? (ID-GAM-74)

A	Shield volcanoes
B	Composite volcanoes
C	Dome volcanoes
D	Cinder cone volcanoes

Question 21

One of the characteristic of high sediment carrying stream would be that they have a.... (ID-GAM-29)

A	wider river channel.
B	small flood plain.
C	large flood plain.
D	high rate of discharge.
E	low gradient.

Question 22

Which of the following is true? (ID-GAM-14)

A	Stress can be directly calculated using alignment of mineral grains and position of fractures.
B	Stress can be directly calculated using deformation of rocks.
C	Stress is force per unit area while strain is the deformation resulted from stress.
D	Strain only occurs in solid mediums while stress occurs in both solids, liquids and gases.
E	Strain is force per unit area while stress is the force that result in deformation.

Question 22 Explanation: 

Note stress is not observed or measured in nature. We measure strain and infer stress using strain evaluations.

Question 23

Which of the following mechanism would produce earthquakes primarily due to shear forces? (ID-GAM-44)

A	Spreading of Mid Ocean Ridges
B	Reverse faulting
C	Normal faulting
D	Strike-slip faulting

Question 24

Which of the following is correct about the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning System? (ID-GAM-80)

A	It heavily relies on data obtained through live satellite imagery of tectonic plates.
B	It failed to detect and send out proper warning signals on 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami.
C	It was originated as a result of UN conference held in India.
D	It comes in to service in 2006.

Question 24 Explanation: 

The only thing you have to remember is that it came online after the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake. This is not a tricky "remember the facts" type of question.

Question 25

Shield volcanoes have ______ bases and ______ inclined slopes. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-70)

A	broad , gently
B	narrow , gently
C	narrow , steeply
D	broad , steeply

Question 26

According to the worldwide magnitude and frequency of earthquakes by descriptor classification, the term "Major Earthquake" is used for seismic events that exceed what magnitude? (ID-GAM-43)

A	Magnitude 5
B	Magnitude 6
C	Magnitude 3
D	Magnitude 4
E	Magnitude 7

Question 27

What is the most common test performed on rocks to determine their strengths? (ID-GAM-21)

A	Extensional Strength test.
B	Uniform Comprehensive Force test.
C	Unconfined Comprehensive Strength test.
D	Unified Conditional Strength test.
E	Common Load test.

Question 28

What is the difference between magma and lava? (ID-GAM-68)

A	Magma is produced at plate boundaries without volcanic activity while lava is produced at volcanic zones.
B	Molten rock and minerals in subsurface is known as magma while it is on the surface known as lava.
C	Magma solidify at much higher temperatures than lava.
D	Magma has a higher viscosity and low flow rate than lava.
E	Lava is produced when the molten solution has at least 40% of water or hydrous minerals.

Question 29

According to the soil classification introduced in the textbook (Keller), what order name would be given to the following soil description? (ID-GAM-05)
"No horizon development; many are recent alluvium; synthetic soils are included; are often young soils."

A	Entisols
B	Aridisols
C	Histosols
D	Ulfisols
E	Vertisols

Question 29 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 30

When analyzing slope stability, the Safety Factor (SF) is said to be within the stable limits when.... (ID-GAM-36)

A	SF is greater than 100.
B	SF is greater than 1.
C	SF is equal to 0.
D	SF is equal 100.
E	SF is equal to 1.

Question 30 Explanation: 

Safety Factor (SF) is the ratio of resisting forces to driving forces.

Question 31

Point bars on meandering rivers form as a result of which of the following? (ID-GAM-31)

A	Sediment deposition due to decreased in the flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
B	Erosion of the floodplain due to increased in flow velocity on both sides of the bend.
C	Erosion of the floodplain due to increased in flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
D	Sediment deposition due to increased in the flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
E	Seasonal floods that resulting overprinting of existing low elevation regions of floodplains.

Question 32

What is the major assumption in the dilatancy-diffusion model (theory) of earthquakes? (ID-GAM-65)

A	Earthquakes and other tectonic activities are the major driving forces for global warming.
B	Earthquake zones are always accompanied by volcanic activities.
C	Earthquakes are caused as a result of significant movement of tectonic plates.
D	At first stage of earthquake development, the elastic strain increases in rocks.
E	Pressure is the primary cause of all earthquakes.

Question 32 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 33

Seismic frequency can be best described as... (ID-GAM-48)

A	wavelets per minute.
B	length of signal wavelets.
C	vibrations per period.
D	distance between the peak and trough of a wavelet.
E	cycles per second.

Question 34

If you were to build a waste disposal site for the City of Calgary, which of the following location would you pick as a geologist responsible for minimizing environmental impact? (ID-GAM-25)

A	Area with large shale subsurface with water table below the shale layer.
B	Area with good subsurface porosity and permeability.
C	Area with mixture of sand and shale layers with water table cutting across it.
D	Area with large sand subsurface with water table below the sand layer.

Question 34 Explanation: 

Shale will prevent leaching of waste hence it is preferred over and while having a low water table will minimize contamination of fresh groundwater supply. Shale will act as a barrier to the leaching.

Question 35

Soil particles often cling together in aggregates called ______ that are classified according to ______ into several types. Answers in respective order. (ID-GAM-08)

A	molds , shape
B	peds , mineral assemblage
C	molds , mineral assemblage
D	subsoils , mineral assemblage
E	peds , shape

Question 35 Explanation: 

Shapes or textures

Question 36

Which of the following trace element is associated with goiter which is caused by the enlargement of the thyroid gland? (ID-GAM-78)

A	Iodine
B	Manganese
C	Arsenic
D	Fluorine
E	Radon

Question 37

The area between the water table and the ground surface is known as... (ID-GAM-26)

A	low pressure zone.
B	accumulation zone.
C	vadose zone.
D	leaching zone.
E	void zone.

Question 38

Zone of accumulation have which of the following soil horizon(s)? (ID-GAM-03)

A	B and C
B	A and C
C	O , A and E
D	B
E	C

Question 39

As the elastic deformation decreases... (ID-GAM-59)

A	None of the answers are correct.
B	possibility of faulting decreases.
C	brittleness increases.
D	ductility increases.
E	density increases.

Question 40

Which of the following is not a surface wave associated with earthquakes? (ID-GAM-46)

A	Rayleigh waves
B	Tsunami
C	None of the above answers are correct.
D	S waves
E	Love waves

Question 41

Which of the following would you expect to observe, if you were to place a hydroelectricity dam for on a natural river? Upstream refers to river from origin point to the dam and downstream refers from the dam to the river mouth. (ID-GAM-30)

A	Increased in sediment stability in the upstream.
B	Upstream deposition of sediments while significant downstream erosion.
C	Increased in river avulsion both upstream and downstream.
D	Increased in biodiversity in the upstream environments due to higher availability of water.

Question 42

What is geodesy? (ID-GAM-53)

A	The process in which the magnetic reversal occurs.
B	None of the listed answers are correct.
C	A type of movement observed in ocean currents during a tsunami.
D	A situation where odd or uncommon minerals are found within rocks.
E	A branch of science that involved in study of Earth's tectonic plates movement.

Question 43

What is an active fault? (ID-GAM-45)

A	If a fault has moved at last 10 cm during the last 10 years.
B	If the fault has moved at least 10 cm during the last 5 years.
C	The definition is depend on the geological regulations in a given region.
D	The the fault has produced some seismic activities during the last 5 years.
E	If the fault has produced significant earthquakes during the last few years.

Question 44

Which of the following could potentially would not result in a sinkhole? Note, all listed answers could cause sinkholes, but one is least likely. (ID-GAM-40)

A	Subsurface natural drainage systems.
B	Liquefaction caused by earthquakes and other naturally occurring vibrations.
C	Increased in overburden pressure due to urbanization and building developments.
D	Chemical weathering of subsurface limestone.
E	Intrusion of igneous magmas across metamorphic rocks in the subsurface.

Question 44 Explanation: 

Metamorphic rocks are typically strong solid rocks. While intrusion of magmas across these types of rocks could reduce the strength of rocks, it is not usually large enough to cause sinkholes. Magma intrusions could also potentially increased the strength of rocks by fusing existing caverns and fractures.

Question 45

Which of the following statement best describe tsunamis? (ID-GAM-52)

A	Generate only P type seismic waves.
B	Only occurred during the last 10,000 years.
C	Occurs when two earthquakes occurs under water at the same (or close to each other) time.
D	Sudden vertical movement of ocean waters caused by an underwater seismic event.
E	A natural hazard that is only found in the Asian regions such as Japan and Indonesia.

Question 46

Capillary water between grains are observed within the ______ zone where it has ______ pore pressure. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-56)

A	high pressure , negative
B	unsaturated , negative
C	high pressure , positive
D	saturated , positive
E	unsaturated , positive
F	saturated , negative

Question 47

Which seismic wave is released first during an earthquake? (ID-GAM-79)

A	Love wave
B	None of the answers are correct.
C	P-wave
D	Rayleigh wave
E	S-wave

Question 47 Explanation: 

All seismic waves are released at the same time during a seismic event. However, the arrival time to a detection center at a some distance varies with P-wave being the first wave to arrive.

Question 48

The layers between the two yellow dash lines on the following picture is within the zone of leaching and also includes the top soil layer. Which of the following soil horizons would most likely to be present in this highlighted section? (ID-GAM-02)

A	B , R and C
B	A , E and O
C	A , B and R
D	B , E and O
E	B , C and R

Question 48 Explanation: 

A and E are within the zone of leeching and the top layer you observe in this picture is the O horizon.

Question 49

Some soil profiles have E horizon. E horizon is characterized by which of the following? (ID-GAM-04)

A	None of the answers are correct.
B	Iron-bearing components.
C	Extensive organic root networks.
D	Highly concentrated organic matter such as decomposing or decomposed leaves.
E	Unweathered or unaltered materials.

Question 50

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label III? (ID-GAM-19)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Rupture or fracture strength
B	Rupture point
C	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength
D	Ultimate strength

Question 51

Which of the following statement is true about flash floods? (ID-GAM-32)

A	There has been no record of flash floods in arid regions such as Las Vegas, Nevada.
B	They are typically associated with upper parts of the drainage basin.
C	They exclusively occur in meandering river floodplains.
D	They are becoming more uncommon occurrence due to global warming.
E	They are mostly governed by global climatic changes not local weather events.

Question 52

How does the retention pond flood mitigation method work? (ID-GAM-33)

A	Increasing the discharge rate of rivers.
B	Holding water from a flood indefinitely.
C	Increasing the volume of water in rivers.
D	Increasing the penetration of water in the subsurface.
E	Reducing the storm drainage discharge rate.

Question 53

Hydrostatic stress... (ID-GAM-55)

A	is the pressure that is a controlled by the contact surface area between grains within sediments.
B	typically increases with depth.
C	typically result in negative pore pressure in deeper parts of subsurface.
D	typically higher in subduction zones.
E	is the pressure exerted by liquids such as lakes and rivers on the subsurface.

Question 54

When is a soil sample block is said to be saturated (geological engineering tests)? (ID-GAM-10)

A	If the pore space is completely filled with fluid(s).
B	If the sample shows no evidence of flow or fluid migration.
C	If the sample has no porosity due to tight compaction.
D	If the pore space is completely saturated with gas(s).
E	If the sample has no pore space due to tight compaction.

Question 54 Explanation: 

Typically it is water saturation. In Alberta, you often come across oil or petroleum or organic fluid saturated samples. You will learn about these in detail in higher level geology classes.

Question 55

Which of the following statement is true about seismic waves generated by earthquakes? (ID-GAM-50)

A	Majority of the shaking of large tall buildings at a significant distance to epicenter is caused by high frequency seismic waves.
B	Seismic amplitude arrival times become shorter (faster) as you move away from the epicenter.
C	Seismic frequency attenuation effect is large with the loner distance from the epicenter.
D	P wave travel at a much slower velocity than the S saves.
E	Magnitude of an earthquake at the focus is directly measured by seismic monitoring centers.

Question 55 Explanation: 

Attenuation is a reduction of signal strength during traveling across different mediums. Attenuation weaken and reduce the frequency of waves. Geophysics majors in this class and Geology students who will take Geophysics classes as options will learn about signal attenuation in depth in future classes.

Question 56

This type of volcanoes has a beautiful cone shape (Eg. Mount St. Helens, USA) and is characterized by maga with an intermediate silica content of about 60%. (ID-GAM-72)

A	Dome volcanoes
B	None of the listed answers are correct.
C	Shield volcanoes
D	Composite volcanoes
E	Cinder cone volcanoes

Question 57

What is a supershear? (ID-GAM-51)

A	It is an event that occurs in all earthquakes where the epicenter is directly on top of the focus.
B	It occurs when rupture along the fault surface occurs at speeds in excess of the seismic shear wave.
C	It occurs when the amplitude of shear waves exceeds the velocity of primary wave.
D	It occurs when two shear waves compliments each other leading to higher frequencies.
E	It occurs when amplitude attenuates over a very short period of time.

Question 58

The case study of Lake Peigneur - Jefferson Island salt mine collapse is primarily cause by... (ID-GAM-41)

A	lack of understanding of subsurface salt deposits by the mining company.
B	poor planing of drilling by the oil company.
C	increased overburden pressures directly on top of the salt mines.
D	drainage of the Lake Peigneur into the Jefferson Island through naturally existing fractures.
E	reduced drainage of subsurface fluids such as water and oil.

Question 59

During a Geotechnical Mitigation process, which of the following would result in safer environment? (ID-GAM-60)

A	Increase in pore pressure
B	Increase in internal friction angle.
C	Decrease in grain friction.
D	Decrease in soil shear strength
E	Decrease in effective stress

Question 59 Explanation: 

S = (σ–u) tan Φ Check this...

Question 60

Majority of volcanic gas is composed of what type of compound? (ID-GAM-71)

A	carbon dioxide
B	nitrogen
C	ammonia
D	methane
E	water

Question 61

At the water table, the water is mostly subjected to which of the following? (ID-GAM-57)

A	Pore pressure
B	Hydrostatic pressure
C	Overburden load pressure
D	Atmospheric pressure
E	Static-dynamic pressure

Question 62

Materials that rupture before plastic deformation occur are... (ID-GAM-15)

A	elastic.
B	plastic.
C	ductile.
D	brittle.

Question 63

This type of wave associated with earthquakes moves along the surface by oscillating side to side as opposed to up and down and only produce horizontal motion. (ID-GAM-47)

A	Body waves
B	Love waves
C	S waves
D	P waves
E	Rayleigh waves

Question 64

If you had no choice but to live close to a known earthquake zone, what type of subsurface geology best suited for your home to minimize the impact of earthquake shaking? (ID-GAM-49)

A	Older compacted silt and mud
B	Older sedimentary rocks
C	Alluvium
D	Younger silt and mud
E	Older igneous rocks

Question 64 Explanation: 

Material amplification; Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 65

What are seismic gaps? (ID-GAM-67)

A	Difference in arrival times between the P wave and S wave at the monitoring center.
B	Time duration intervals between each arrival of seismic wavelets to the monitoring center.
C	It describes our lack of understanding of seismic events due to complexity of plate tectonics and fault propagation mechanisms.
D	Time duration between major earthquakes near an active zone.
E	Distance between the first geophone and the epicenter of an earthquake.

Question 66

Why would we sometimes observe increased in radon gas in water wells months or weeks before an earthquake? (ID-GAM-54)

A	Change in density of gases in the subsurface due to multiple forces acting in the fault region result in radon flowing to low density zones.
B	Build up of pressure causes the radon gas to move from the fault surface to other regions.
C	Energy released just before the earthquakes result in expedite decay of uranium.
D	Expansion of rocks and fractures with influx of water in the region just before an earthquake allow radon gas to migrate.
E	Some earthquake zones produce radon gas as a byproduct of fiction between rocks.

Question 67

Which of the following is the best definition of rock strength? (ID-GAM-16)

A	How far above a standard failure envelope, a rock can withstand without failure.
B	The ability for a rock to withstand shear forces.
C	The minimum stress required to increase the pressure within the rock above 1000 N.
D	The ability for a rock to hold a certain weight of materials.
E	The maximum stress a rock can experience before failure.

Question 68

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label II? (ID-GAM-18)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Ultimate strength
B	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength
C	Rupture or fracture strength
D	Rupture point

Question 69

Given the following information, calculate the Factor of Safety (SF). (ID-GAM-38)
Driving force = 4.2 x 10¹⁰ Nm
Resisting force = 12.6 x 10¹⁰ Nm
Shear strength = 2.0 x 10⁶ Nm

A	SF = 2
B	SF = 6
C	SF = 3
D	SF = 0.33
E	SF = 6

Question 69 Explanation: 

SF = resisting force /driving force
SF = (12.6 x 10¹⁰ Nm)/(4.2 x 10¹⁰ Nm) =3

Question 70

What causes majority of sinkholes? (ID-GAM-27)

A	Physical breakdown of compacted sediments.
B	Chemical weathering of soluble rocks.
C	Shrinking of salt deposits due to high overburden pressure.
D	Reduction of pressure caused by extraction of fluids from pores.
E	Physical breakdown of subsurface rocks.

Question 71

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label I? (ID-GAM-17)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Ultimate strength
B	Rupture point
C	Rupture or fracture strength
D	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength

Question 72

Majority of solid waste in modern day urban centers are composed of which of the following? (ID-GAM-24)

A	Paper
B	Metals
C	Plastics
D	Glass
E	Wood

Question 72 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 73

Long Beach, USA subsidence is caused by... (ID-GAM-63)

A	natural seepage of fluids from the subsurface.
B	human activities such as building large structures hence increasing the pressure in subsurface and increasing subsidence.
C	human extraction of fluids from the subsurface.
D	tectonic activities near the San Andreas Fault.

Question 74

Which of the following landslide type has the slowest lateral movement of earth materials? (ID-GAM-35)

A	Debris avalanches
B	High angle rockfalls
C	Earth flows
D	Soil creeps
E	Mud flows

Question 74 Explanation: 

Soil creeps could move few cm per day to 100s of meters per day depending on variety of geological conditions. But typically the term "creep" is used to describe very slow (cm scale) movement of earth.

Question 75

What is talus? (ID-GAM-28)

A	A region with highly soluble minerals which could result in landslides and sinkholes.
B	Exposed surface left behind after a landslide.
C	Debris left behind by movement of glaciers.
D	A zone of contaminant accumulation from a leaching site.
E	Accumulation of rock fragments from a landslide.

Question 76

Granular soil texture is most common in ______ horizons and platy texture is most common in ______ horizons. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-09)

A	A type , E type
B	B type , E type
C	C type , E type
D	B type , C type
E	A type , B type

Question 77

In Canada, radon gas pollution is often observed in houses. It is a dangerous gas that cause lung cancer and is produced by what type of rock or mineral? (ID-GAM-23)

A	Calcium bearing rocks
B	Iron and metal oxides bearing rocks
C	Gold bearing rocks
D	Uranium bearing rocks
E	Cesium bearing rocks

Question 78

What properties of rock fracture systems are most important to geologists and engineers? (ID-GAM-22)

A	Depth and overburden pressures that resulted in fractures.
B	None of the answers are correct.
C	Temperature and pressure that causes the fracture network.
D	Length and width of fractures.
E	Frequency and orientation of fractures.

Question 78 Explanation: 

This is a difficult question because four answers are correct. But in multiple choice exams, you should be able to choose the most important factors. This will become very important in some advanced classes. Welcome to the University new comers!

Question 79

Majority of the rotational slides or slump type landslides are observed under what conditions? (ID-GAM-37)

A	Areas closer to heat sources such as volcanoes.
B	Areas with subsurface characterized by alternating strong and weak layers of rocks (eg. schist foliation planes of weakness).
C	Areas with high seismic activities such as plate boundary regions (eg, Japan).
D	Areas with large volume of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
E	Areas with large volume of unconsolidated soils.

Question 80

Which of the following best describe expansive soils? (ID-GAM-11)

A	They have the ability to decrease in volume with change water content.
B	They have larger soil particles than other types of soils.
C	They are mostly made up of silicate minerals such as quartz and pyroxenes.
D	They have the ability to either increase or decrease in volume with change water content.
E	They have the ability to increase in volume with change water content.

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