GLGY 202 – Applications of Geoscience

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Geology (GLGY 202-UCAL) Midterm Exam

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Question 1

According to the worldwide magnitude and frequency of earthquakes by descriptor classification, the term "Major Earthquake" is used for seismic events that exceed what magnitude? (ID-GAM-43)

A	Magnitude 6
B	Magnitude 5
C	Magnitude 4
D	Magnitude 3
E	Magnitude 7

Question 2

Soil particles often cling together in aggregates called ______ that are classified according to ______ into several types. Answers in respective order. (ID-GAM-08)

A	subsoils , mineral assemblage
B	peds , mineral assemblage
C	molds , shape
D	peds , shape
E	molds , mineral assemblage

Question 2 Explanation: 

Shapes or textures

Question 3

Which of the following trace element is associated with goiter which is caused by the enlargement of the thyroid gland? (ID-GAM-78)

A	Fluorine
B	Arsenic
C	Radon
D	Iodine
E	Manganese

Question 4

This type of wave associated with earthquakes moves along the surface by oscillating side to side as opposed to up and down and only produce horizontal motion. (ID-GAM-47)

A	S waves
B	Rayleigh waves
C	Love waves
D	Body waves
E	P waves

Question 5

Majority of solid waste in modern day urban centers are composed of which of the following? (ID-GAM-24)

A	Paper
B	Plastics
C	Glass
D	Metals
E	Wood

Question 5 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 6

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label II? (ID-GAM-18)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Rupture or fracture strength
B	Rupture point
C	Ultimate strength
D	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength

Question 7

Which of the following is not a surface wave associated with earthquakes? (ID-GAM-46)

A	None of the above answers are correct.
B	Tsunami
C	S waves
D	Rayleigh waves
E	Love waves

Question 8

Why does soil chronosequence important? (ID-GAM-07)

A	It can be used to determine the current fertility of soils.
B	It can be used to generate groundwater table.
C	It can be used to evaluate geologic stability and conditions in the past and predict future conditions.
D	It can be used to determine the porosity and permeability of older layers, which can be used to interpret groundwater drainage patterns.
E	There is no economic reasons for soil chronosequence, but it is used in research by scientists.

Question 9

Hydrostatic stress... (ID-GAM-55)

A	is the pressure that is a controlled by the contact surface area between grains within sediments.
B	typically result in negative pore pressure in deeper parts of subsurface.
C	is the pressure exerted by liquids such as lakes and rivers on the subsurface.
D	typically increases with depth.
E	typically higher in subduction zones.

Question 10

Zone of accumulation have which of the following soil horizon(s)? (ID-GAM-03)

A	O , A and E
B	B and C
C	B
D	C
E	A and C

Question 11

How does the retention pond flood mitigation method work? (ID-GAM-33)

A	Increasing the penetration of water in the subsurface.
B	Increasing the discharge rate of rivers.
C	Increasing the volume of water in rivers.
D	Reducing the storm drainage discharge rate.
E	Holding water from a flood indefinitely.

Question 12

Some soil profiles have E horizon. E horizon is characterized by which of the following? (ID-GAM-04)

A	None of the answers are correct.
B	Unweathered or unaltered materials.
C	Iron-bearing components.
D	Extensive organic root networks.
E	Highly concentrated organic matter such as decomposing or decomposed leaves.

Question 13

Materials that rupture before plastic deformation occur are... (ID-GAM-15)

A	elastic.
B	ductile.
C	brittle.
D	plastic.

Question 14

Which of the following type of volcano commonly produce rhyolitic magma and has a higher tendency for explosive eruptions compare to others? (ID-GAM-74)

A	Cinder cone volcanoes
B	Dome volcanoes
C	Shield volcanoes
D	Composite volcanoes

Question 15

If you were to build a waste disposal site for the City of Calgary, which of the following location would you pick as a geologist responsible for minimizing environmental impact? (ID-GAM-25)

A	Area with good subsurface porosity and permeability.
B	Area with large sand subsurface with water table below the sand layer.
C	Area with mixture of sand and shale layers with water table cutting across it.
D	Area with large shale subsurface with water table below the shale layer.

Question 15 Explanation: 

Shale will prevent leaching of waste hence it is preferred over and while having a low water table will minimize contamination of fresh groundwater supply. Shale will act as a barrier to the leaching.

Question 16

Majority of the rotational slides or slump type landslides are observed under what conditions? (ID-GAM-37)

A	Areas closer to heat sources such as volcanoes.
B	Areas with subsurface characterized by alternating strong and weak layers of rocks (eg. schist foliation planes of weakness).
C	Areas with large volume of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
D	Areas with large volume of unconsolidated soils.
E	Areas with high seismic activities such as plate boundary regions (eg, Japan).

Question 17

Which of the following is correct about the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning System? (ID-GAM-80)

A	It failed to detect and send out proper warning signals on 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami.
B	It heavily relies on data obtained through live satellite imagery of tectonic plates.
C	It was originated as a result of UN conference held in India.
D	It comes in to service in 2006.

Question 17 Explanation: 

The only thing you have to remember is that it came online after the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake. This is not a tricky "remember the facts" type of question.

Question 18

What is the major assumption in the dilatancy-diffusion model (theory) of earthquakes? (ID-GAM-65)

A	Earthquake zones are always accompanied by volcanic activities.
B	Pressure is the primary cause of all earthquakes.
C	At first stage of earthquake development, the elastic strain increases in rocks.
D	Earthquakes are caused as a result of significant movement of tectonic plates.
E	Earthquakes and other tectonic activities are the major driving forces for global warming.

Question 18 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 19

According to the soil classification introduced in the textbook (Keller), what order name would be given to the following soil description? (ID-GAM-05)
"No horizon development; many are recent alluvium; synthetic soils are included; are often young soils."

A	Aridisols
B	Histosols
C	Vertisols
D	Entisols
E	Ulfisols

Question 19 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 20

Subsidence can result in all of the following, except... (ID-GAM-61)

A	Flooding
B	Uplift Hint: Common misconception!
C	Change in the direction of river flows.
D	All of these can be caused by subsidence.
E	Ground cracks

Question 20 Explanation: 

Note, uplift can be caused by subsidence. If there is a local subsidence, it could result in uplift of another area as the forces in subsurface changes dramatically over period of time.

Question 21

Which factors have the greatest impact against environmental law? (ID-GAM-13)

A	Political donations.
B	Wealth and power.
C	Sudden unexpected failures in environmental mitigation programs.
D	Natural environmental problems such as floods
E	Natural animal activities such as bears in populated neighborhoods.

Question 21 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 22

Which of the following is involved in the environmental mitigation process? (ID-GAM-12)

A	Finding methods to minimize environmental damage.
B	Creation of a plan for land-use for the project.
C	Detailed evaluation of several selected sites.
D	Identification of important environmental issues.

Question 22 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 23

According to the EPA in the United States, what is the most common cause of death? (ID-GAM-75)

A	Airline crashes
B	Natural and man made fires
C	Drunk driving
D	Drowning
E	Radon gas

Question 23 Explanation: 

The second highest is the radon gas.

Question 24

A tsunami that travels towards the nearby coast is known as ______ and another tsunami that travels out to the deep ocean is known as ______. (ID-GAM-66)

A	high intensity tsunami , low intensity tsunami
B	low intensity tsunami , high intensity tsunami
C	local tsunami , distant tsunami
D	coastal tsunami , distal tsunami
E	Japanese tsunami , Chinese tsunami

Question 25

Building structures on the beach often leads to which of the following issue? (ID-GAM-64)

A	Subsidence
B	Increased in tidal current frequency
C	Interruption of longshore drift result in increased erosion
D	Increased in sea level

Question 26

Which of the following mechanism would produce earthquakes primarily due to shear forces? (ID-GAM-44)

A	Strike-slip faulting
B	Reverse faulting
C	Spreading of Mid Ocean Ridges
D	Normal faulting

Question 27

What is talus? (ID-GAM-28)

A	A zone of contaminant accumulation from a leaching site.
B	Debris left behind by movement of glaciers.
C	Exposed surface left behind after a landslide.
D	A region with highly soluble minerals which could result in landslides and sinkholes.
E	Accumulation of rock fragments from a landslide.

Question 28

What is the difference between magma and lava? (ID-GAM-68)

A	Lava is produced when the molten solution has at least 40% of water or hydrous minerals.
B	Magma is produced at plate boundaries without volcanic activity while lava is produced at volcanic zones.
C	Molten rock and minerals in subsurface is known as magma while it is on the surface known as lava.
D	Magma has a higher viscosity and low flow rate than lava.
E	Magma solidify at much higher temperatures than lava.

Question 29

In Canada, radon gas pollution is often observed in houses. It is a dangerous gas that cause lung cancer and is produced by what type of rock or mineral? (ID-GAM-23)

A	Cesium bearing rocks
B	Calcium bearing rocks
C	Uranium bearing rocks
D	Iron and metal oxides bearing rocks
E	Gold bearing rocks

Question 30

At the water table, the water is mostly subjected to which of the following? (ID-GAM-57)

A	Hydrostatic pressure
B	Atmospheric pressure
C	Overburden load pressure
D	Static-dynamic pressure
E	Pore pressure

Question 31

Which of the following is true? (ID-GAM-14)

A	Strain only occurs in solid mediums while stress occurs in both solids, liquids and gases.
B	Stress can be directly calculated using alignment of mineral grains and position of fractures.
C	Stress can be directly calculated using deformation of rocks.
D	Stress is force per unit area while strain is the deformation resulted from stress.
E	Strain is force per unit area while stress is the force that result in deformation.

Question 31 Explanation: 

Note stress is not observed or measured in nature. We measure strain and infer stress using strain evaluations.

Question 32

During a Geotechnical Mitigation process, which of the following would result in safer environment? (ID-GAM-60)

A	Decrease in effective stress
B	Decrease in grain friction.
C	Decrease in soil shear strength
D	Increase in internal friction angle.
E	Increase in pore pressure

Question 32 Explanation: 

S = (σ–u) tan Φ Check this...

Question 33

What is an active fault? (ID-GAM-45)

A	The definition is depend on the geological regulations in a given region.
B	If the fault has produced significant earthquakes during the last few years.
C	If the fault has moved at least 10 cm during the last 5 years.
D	If a fault has moved at last 10 cm during the last 10 years.
E	The the fault has produced some seismic activities during the last 5 years.

Question 34

Which of the following would you expect to observe, if you were to place a hydroelectricity dam for on a natural river? Upstream refers to river from origin point to the dam and downstream refers from the dam to the river mouth. (ID-GAM-30)

A	Increased in biodiversity in the upstream environments due to higher availability of water.
B	Upstream deposition of sediments while significant downstream erosion.
C	Increased in river avulsion both upstream and downstream.
D	Increased in sediment stability in the upstream.

Question 35

Which of the following is the best definition of rock strength? (ID-GAM-16)

A	The maximum stress a rock can experience before failure.
B	The ability for a rock to withstand shear forces.
C	How far above a standard failure envelope, a rock can withstand without failure.
D	The minimum stress required to increase the pressure within the rock above 1000 N.
E	The ability for a rock to hold a certain weight of materials.

Question 36

The area between the water table and the ground surface is known as... (ID-GAM-26)

A	accumulation zone.
B	leaching zone.
C	low pressure zone.
D	void zone.
E	vadose zone.

Question 37

One of the movies you watched in class, a character picked up a rock and called it a dolomite. Why would you disagree with this statement? (ID-GAM-20)

A	It could be calcite.
B	The environment which the movie scene took place cannot be producing calcite.
C	It could be quartz.
D	This class is so hip and crazy.
E	Physical appearance of the rock sample is not that of calcite.

Question 38

Given the following information, calculate the Factor of Safety (SF). (ID-GAM-38)
Driving force = 4.2 x 10¹⁰ Nm
Resisting force = 12.6 x 10¹⁰ Nm
Shear strength = 2.0 x 10⁶ Nm

A	SF = 6
B	SF = 3
C	SF = 6
D	SF = 2
E	SF = 0.33

Question 38 Explanation: 

SF = resisting force /driving force
SF = (12.6 x 10¹⁰ Nm)/(4.2 x 10¹⁰ Nm) =3

Question 39

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label III? (ID-GAM-19)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Rupture or fracture strength
B	Rupture point
C	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength
D	Ultimate strength

Question 40

Which of the following statement is true about seismic waves generated by earthquakes? (ID-GAM-50)

A	Seismic frequency attenuation effect is large with the loner distance from the epicenter.
B	Seismic amplitude arrival times become shorter (faster) as you move away from the epicenter.
C	Majority of the shaking of large tall buildings at a significant distance to epicenter is caused by high frequency seismic waves.
D	Magnitude of an earthquake at the focus is directly measured by seismic monitoring centers.
E	P wave travel at a much slower velocity than the S saves.

Question 40 Explanation: 

Attenuation is a reduction of signal strength during traveling across different mediums. Attenuation weaken and reduce the frequency of waves. Geophysics majors in this class and Geology students who will take Geophysics classes as options will learn about signal attenuation in depth in future classes.

Question 41

Which of the following landslide type has the slowest lateral movement of earth materials? (ID-GAM-35)

A	Earth flows
B	Mud flows
C	Soil creeps
D	Debris avalanches
E	High angle rockfalls

Question 41 Explanation: 

Soil creeps could move few cm per day to 100s of meters per day depending on variety of geological conditions. But typically the term "creep" is used to describe very slow (cm scale) movement of earth.

Question 42

Which of the following could potentially would not result in a sinkhole? Note, all listed answers could cause sinkholes, but one is least likely. (ID-GAM-40)

A	Increased in overburden pressure due to urbanization and building developments.
B	Liquefaction caused by earthquakes and other naturally occurring vibrations.
C	Chemical weathering of subsurface limestone.
D	Intrusion of igneous magmas across metamorphic rocks in the subsurface.
E	Subsurface natural drainage systems.

Question 42 Explanation: 

Metamorphic rocks are typically strong solid rocks. While intrusion of magmas across these types of rocks could reduce the strength of rocks, it is not usually large enough to cause sinkholes. Magma intrusions could also potentially increased the strength of rocks by fusing existing caverns and fractures.

Question 43

What properties of rock fracture systems are most important to geologists and engineers? (ID-GAM-22)

A	Frequency and orientation of fractures.
B	None of the answers are correct.
C	Temperature and pressure that causes the fracture network.
D	Depth and overburden pressures that resulted in fractures.
E	Length and width of fractures.

Question 43 Explanation: 

This is a difficult question because four answers are correct. But in multiple choice exams, you should be able to choose the most important factors. This will become very important in some advanced classes. Welcome to the University new comers!

Question 44

When is a soil sample block is said to be saturated (geological engineering tests)? (ID-GAM-10)

A	If the pore space is completely filled with fluid(s).
B	If the sample has no porosity due to tight compaction.
C	If the pore space is completely saturated with gas(s).
D	If the sample shows no evidence of flow or fluid migration.
E	If the sample has no pore space due to tight compaction.

Question 44 Explanation: 

Typically it is water saturation. In Alberta, you often come across oil or petroleum or organic fluid saturated samples. You will learn about these in detail in higher level geology classes.

Question 45

Which of the following is not required in order to classify a substance as soil? (ID-GAM-01)

A	Specific assemblage of minerals and rock fragments.
B	Solid earth materials that can be removed without blasting.
C	A material that can support growth of plants through allowing roots to penetrate.
D	Earth materials that has been altered by biological processes.
E	Earth materials that has been altered by physical processes.

Question 46

What what term is used to describe the point of origin of an earthquake? (ID-GAM-42)

A	Epicenter
B	Focus
C	Scarp
D	Hypocenter
E	Foreshock

Question 47

What are seismic gaps? (ID-GAM-67)

A	Time duration intervals between each arrival of seismic wavelets to the monitoring center.
B	Difference in arrival times between the P wave and S wave at the monitoring center.
C	Time duration between major earthquakes near an active zone.
D	It describes our lack of understanding of seismic events due to complexity of plate tectonics and fault propagation mechanisms.
E	Distance between the first geophone and the epicenter of an earthquake.

Question 48

The case study of Lake Peigneur - Jefferson Island salt mine collapse is primarily cause by... (ID-GAM-41)

A	increased overburden pressures directly on top of the salt mines.
B	poor planing of drilling by the oil company.
C	reduced drainage of subsurface fluids such as water and oil.
D	lack of understanding of subsurface salt deposits by the mining company.
E	drainage of the Lake Peigneur into the Jefferson Island through naturally existing fractures.

Question 49

One of the characteristic of high sediment carrying stream would be that they have a.... (ID-GAM-29)

A	high rate of discharge.
B	low gradient.
C	wider river channel.
D	small flood plain.
E	large flood plain.

Question 50

Which of the following statement best describe tsunamis? (ID-GAM-52)

A	Only occurred during the last 10,000 years.
B	Sudden vertical movement of ocean waters caused by an underwater seismic event.
C	Occurs when two earthquakes occurs under water at the same (or close to each other) time.
D	Generate only P type seismic waves.
E	A natural hazard that is only found in the Asian regions such as Japan and Indonesia.

Question 51

What cause the majority of large scale soil erosion around the world? (ID-GAM-06)

A	Low temperatures and pressures
B	Water runoff
C	Boulder size sediments
D	High temperatures and pressures
E	High slope angle or relief

Question 52

High concentration of which of the following trace element in our environment is associated with deafness? (ID-GAM-77)

A	Arsenic
B	Radon
C	Iodine
D	Manganese
E	Fluorine

Question 53

When analyzing slope stability, the Safety Factor (SF) is said to be within the stable limits when.... (ID-GAM-36)

A	SF is equal 100.
B	SF is equal to 1.
C	SF is greater than 100.
D	SF is equal to 0.
E	SF is greater than 1.

Question 53 Explanation: 

Safety Factor (SF) is the ratio of resisting forces to driving forces.

Question 54

This type of volcanoes are relatively small and formed from mostly tephra. (ID-GAM-73)

A	Shield volcanoes
B	Composite volcanoes
C	Cinder cone volcanoes
D	Dome volcanoes
E	All of the listed types of volcanoes can have such characteristics.

Question 55

A _____ is a hot, turbulent mixture of expanding gases and volcanic ash that flows rapidly down the side of a volcano. (ID-GAM-69)

A	lava flow
B	mud flow
C	magma flow
D	pyroclastic flow
E	hyaloclastic flow

Question 56

The layers between the two yellow dash lines on the following picture is within the zone of leaching and also includes the top soil layer. Which of the following soil horizons would most likely to be present in this highlighted section? (ID-GAM-02)

A	B , C and R
B	A , E and O
C	B , R and C
D	B , E and O
E	A , B and R

Question 56 Explanation: 

A and E are within the zone of leeching and the top layer you observe in this picture is the O horizon.

Question 57

What is the most common test performed on rocks to determine their strengths? (ID-GAM-21)

A	Extensional Strength test.
B	Unified Conditional Strength test.
C	Common Load test.
D	Uniform Comprehensive Force test.
E	Unconfined Comprehensive Strength test.

Question 58

Why would we sometimes observe increased in radon gas in water wells months or weeks before an earthquake? (ID-GAM-54)

A	Change in density of gases in the subsurface due to multiple forces acting in the fault region result in radon flowing to low density zones.
B	Some earthquake zones produce radon gas as a byproduct of fiction between rocks.
C	Expansion of rocks and fractures with influx of water in the region just before an earthquake allow radon gas to migrate.
D	Energy released just before the earthquakes result in expedite decay of uranium.
E	Build up of pressure causes the radon gas to move from the fault surface to other regions.

Question 59

Which of the following statement is true about flash floods? (ID-GAM-32)

A	They exclusively occur in meandering river floodplains.
B	They are mostly governed by global climatic changes not local weather events.
C	There has been no record of flash floods in arid regions such as Las Vegas, Nevada.
D	They are typically associated with upper parts of the drainage basin.
E	They are becoming more uncommon occurrence due to global warming.

Question 60

Shield volcanoes have ______ bases and ______ inclined slopes. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-70)

A	broad , steeply
B	broad , gently
C	narrow , steeply
D	narrow , gently

Question 61

Which seismic wave is released first during an earthquake? (ID-GAM-79)

A	Love wave
B	None of the answers are correct.
C	P-wave
D	Rayleigh wave
E	S-wave

Question 61 Explanation: 

All seismic waves are released at the same time during a seismic event. However, the arrival time to a detection center at a some distance varies with P-wave being the first wave to arrive.

Question 62

What is a supershear? (ID-GAM-51)

A	It occurs when rupture along the fault surface occurs at speeds in excess of the seismic shear wave.
B	It occurs when two shear waves compliments each other leading to higher frequencies.
C	It occurs when amplitude attenuates over a very short period of time.
D	It occurs when the amplitude of shear waves exceeds the velocity of primary wave.
E	It is an event that occurs in all earthquakes where the epicenter is directly on top of the focus.

Question 63

As the elastic deformation decreases... (ID-GAM-59)

A	possibility of faulting decreases.
B	brittleness increases.
C	None of the answers are correct.
D	ductility increases.
E	density increases.

Question 64

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label I? (ID-GAM-17)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Rupture point
B	Ultimate strength
C	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength
D	Rupture or fracture strength

Question 65

Majority of volcanic gas is composed of what type of compound? (ID-GAM-71)

A	carbon dioxide
B	ammonia
C	water
D	nitrogen
E	methane

Question 66

This type of volcanoes has a beautiful cone shape (Eg. Mount St. Helens, USA) and is characterized by maga with an intermediate silica content of about 60%. (ID-GAM-72)

A	None of the listed answers are correct.
B	Composite volcanoes
C	Cinder cone volcanoes
D	Shield volcanoes
E	Dome volcanoes

Question 67

According to the 2016 radon gas concentrations study in Calgary area by a University of Calgary research team, at least one in how many homes are over the acceptable maximum limit of radon concentration (in Calgary)? (ID-GAM-76)

A	1 in 100
B	1 in 30
C	1 in 10
D	1 in 60
E	1 in 5

Question 68

If you had no choice but to live close to a known earthquake zone, what type of subsurface geology best suited for your home to minimize the impact of earthquake shaking? (ID-GAM-49)

A	Younger silt and mud
B	Older sedimentary rocks
C	Older igneous rocks
D	Older compacted silt and mud
E	Alluvium

Question 68 Explanation: 

Material amplification; Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 69

Capillary water between grains are observed within the ______ zone where it has ______ pore pressure. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-56)

A	saturated , positive
B	unsaturated , negative
C	high pressure , positive
D	high pressure , negative
E	unsaturated , positive
F	saturated , negative

Question 70

Granular soil texture is most common in ______ horizons and platy texture is most common in ______ horizons. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-09)

A	B type , C type
B	C type , E type
C	A type , B type
D	B type , E type
E	A type , E type

Question 71

Why did Canada sold asbestos from Quebec to India as recently as 2012? (ID-GAM-62)

A	McGill University study proved that asbestos is safe for consumers.
B	Strong independent activist who advocated for cheap building materials for India.
C	Political corruption within the Canadian Provincial and Federal Governments.
D	Pressure from the Indian Government to keep the Canadian mine open.
E	There are no other cheaper alternative to asbestos in India or elsewhere.

Question 71 Explanation: 

Note: John Corbett McDonald from McGill University took money from asbestos industries to publish reports supporting the industry. However, it was the political support that allowed such activities to take place at the first place. Even today, most Canadians are in denial of corruption in Canada because we are busy pointing fingers at other countries. It wasn't India's corruption that resulted in this issue, it was Canada's corruption.

Question 72

What causes majority of sinkholes? (ID-GAM-27)

A	Chemical weathering of soluble rocks.
B	Physical breakdown of compacted sediments.
C	Physical breakdown of subsurface rocks.
D	Shrinking of salt deposits due to high overburden pressure.
E	Reduction of pressure caused by extraction of fluids from pores.

Question 73

Which of the following statement is correct? (ID-GAM-34)

A	Typically natural streams have much higher flow velocities than channelized streams.
B	Natural streams are better at controlling flash floods than channelized streams.
C	None of the answers listed here are correct.
D	Natural streams have different sediment depositional sequences (different deposits) than channelized streams.
E	Both natural streams and channelized streams tends to produce meanders.

Question 74

Which of the following best describe expansive soils? (ID-GAM-11)

A	They have larger soil particles than other types of soils.
B	They have the ability to increase in volume with change water content.
C	They have the ability to either increase or decrease in volume with change water content.
D	They are mostly made up of silicate minerals such as quartz and pyroxenes.
E	They have the ability to decrease in volume with change water content.

Question 75

During a subsurface study for an agricultural development project for the City of Calgary, you found the soil samples are close to 100% dry. Which of the following statement would you include in your final report as a Professional Geoscientist? (ID-GAM-58)

A	Pore pressure within the dry zone is most likely at zero or close to zero.
B	Dry zone must be located within a unsaturated zone.
C	Subsurface geology must be composed of 100% or close to 100% impermeable layers.
D	Area is not suitable for agricultural development.
E	Water table must be above the dry zone.

Question 76

What is geodesy? (ID-GAM-53)

A	A type of movement observed in ocean currents during a tsunami.
B	A branch of science that involved in study of Earth's tectonic plates movement.
C	The process in which the magnetic reversal occurs.
D	None of the listed answers are correct.
E	A situation where odd or uncommon minerals are found within rocks.

Question 77

Seismic frequency can be best described as... (ID-GAM-48)

A	length of signal wavelets.
B	cycles per second.
C	wavelets per minute.
D	vibrations per period.
E	distance between the peak and trough of a wavelet.

Question 78

Drainage control can stabilize a potentially hazardous areas by performing which of the following fundamental task? (ID-GAM-39)

A	Increasing the pore pressure within the subsurface hence increasing the friction between potential failure planes and the subsurface.
B	Reducing the possibility of subsurface springs within the hazardous zones hence reducing the water accumulation in the region.
C	Completely diverting all possible water drainage into the hazardous zones. Hint: It is impossible to completely divert all sources.
D	Reducing the water flow within the subsurface hence decreasing the pore pressure within subsurface that could encourage landslides.

Question 78 Explanation: 

This question is a bit difficult question. You should know that reducing water within subsurface sediments will also reduce the pore pressures and increase the friction between grains. This will add to the resisting force hence lowering the possibility of landslides.

Question 79

Point bars on meandering rivers form as a result of which of the following? (ID-GAM-31)

A	Sediment deposition due to increased in the flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
B	Erosion of the floodplain due to increased in flow velocity on both sides of the bend.
C	Erosion of the floodplain due to increased in flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
D	Seasonal floods that resulting overprinting of existing low elevation regions of floodplains.
E	Sediment deposition due to decreased in the flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.

Question 80

Long Beach, USA subsidence is caused by... (ID-GAM-63)

A	tectonic activities near the San Andreas Fault.
B	human extraction of fluids from the subsurface.
C	natural seepage of fluids from the subsurface.
D	human activities such as building large structures hence increasing the pressure in subsurface and increasing subsidence.

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