GLGY 202 – Applications of Geoscience

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Geology (GLGY 202-UCAL) Midterm Exam

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Question 1

Point bars on meandering rivers form as a result of which of the following? (ID-GAM-31)

A	Sediment deposition due to increased in the flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
B	Seasonal floods that resulting overprinting of existing low elevation regions of floodplains.
C	Erosion of the floodplain due to increased in flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
D	Sediment deposition due to decreased in the flow velocity close to the outside of the bend.
E	Erosion of the floodplain due to increased in flow velocity on both sides of the bend.

Question 2

Why would we sometimes observe increased in radon gas in water wells months or weeks before an earthquake? (ID-GAM-54)

A	Expansion of rocks and fractures with influx of water in the region just before an earthquake allow radon gas to migrate.
B	Energy released just before the earthquakes result in expedite decay of uranium.
C	Some earthquake zones produce radon gas as a byproduct of fiction between rocks.
D	Change in density of gases in the subsurface due to multiple forces acting in the fault region result in radon flowing to low density zones.
E	Build up of pressure causes the radon gas to move from the fault surface to other regions.

Question 3

If you were to build a waste disposal site for the City of Calgary, which of the following location would you pick as a geologist responsible for minimizing environmental impact? (ID-GAM-25)

A	Area with good subsurface porosity and permeability.
B	Area with mixture of sand and shale layers with water table cutting across it.
C	Area with large sand subsurface with water table below the sand layer.
D	Area with large shale subsurface with water table below the shale layer.

Question 3 Explanation: 

Shale will prevent leaching of waste hence it is preferred over and while having a low water table will minimize contamination of fresh groundwater supply. Shale will act as a barrier to the leaching.

Question 4

Materials that rupture before plastic deformation occur are... (ID-GAM-15)

A	ductile.
B	brittle.
C	elastic.
D	plastic.

Question 5

Which of the following is not required in order to classify a substance as soil? (ID-GAM-01)

A	Earth materials that has been altered by physical processes.
B	A material that can support growth of plants through allowing roots to penetrate.
C	Earth materials that has been altered by biological processes.
D	Specific assemblage of minerals and rock fragments.
E	Solid earth materials that can be removed without blasting.

Question 6

At the water table, the water is mostly subjected to which of the following? (ID-GAM-57)

A	Static-dynamic pressure
B	Hydrostatic pressure
C	Pore pressure
D	Atmospheric pressure
E	Overburden load pressure

Question 7

Which of the following would you expect to observe, if you were to place a hydroelectricity dam for on a natural river? Upstream refers to river from origin point to the dam and downstream refers from the dam to the river mouth. (ID-GAM-30)

A	Increased in sediment stability in the upstream.
B	Increased in river avulsion both upstream and downstream.
C	Increased in biodiversity in the upstream environments due to higher availability of water.
D	Upstream deposition of sediments while significant downstream erosion.

Question 8

Building structures on the beach often leads to which of the following issue? (ID-GAM-64)

A	Increased in sea level
B	Increased in tidal current frequency
C	Interruption of longshore drift result in increased erosion
D	Subsidence

Question 9

If you had no choice but to live close to a known earthquake zone, what type of subsurface geology best suited for your home to minimize the impact of earthquake shaking? (ID-GAM-49)

A	Older sedimentary rocks
B	Alluvium
C	Older igneous rocks
D	Younger silt and mud
E	Older compacted silt and mud

Question 9 Explanation: 

Material amplification; Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 10

One of the characteristic of high sediment carrying stream would be that they have a.... (ID-GAM-29)

A	small flood plain.
B	wider river channel.
C	large flood plain.
D	high rate of discharge.
E	low gradient.

Question 11

Which of the following statement is correct? (ID-GAM-34)

A	Natural streams are better at controlling flash floods than channelized streams.
B	Both natural streams and channelized streams tends to produce meanders.
C	Typically natural streams have much higher flow velocities than channelized streams.
D	Natural streams have different sediment depositional sequences (different deposits) than channelized streams.
E	None of the answers listed here are correct.

Question 12

What is talus? (ID-GAM-28)

A	Accumulation of rock fragments from a landslide.
B	A zone of contaminant accumulation from a leaching site.
C	A region with highly soluble minerals which could result in landslides and sinkholes.
D	Debris left behind by movement of glaciers.
E	Exposed surface left behind after a landslide.

Question 13

What causes majority of sinkholes? (ID-GAM-27)

A	Reduction of pressure caused by extraction of fluids from pores.
B	Physical breakdown of subsurface rocks.
C	Physical breakdown of compacted sediments.
D	Shrinking of salt deposits due to high overburden pressure.
E	Chemical weathering of soluble rocks.

Question 14

A _____ is a hot, turbulent mixture of expanding gases and volcanic ash that flows rapidly down the side of a volcano. (ID-GAM-69)

A	mud flow
B	pyroclastic flow
C	lava flow
D	magma flow
E	hyaloclastic flow

Question 15

Which of the following statement best describe tsunamis? (ID-GAM-52)

A	Sudden vertical movement of ocean waters caused by an underwater seismic event.
B	Only occurred during the last 10,000 years.
C	Generate only P type seismic waves.
D	A natural hazard that is only found in the Asian regions such as Japan and Indonesia.
E	Occurs when two earthquakes occurs under water at the same (or close to each other) time.

Question 16

Which of the following is correct about the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning System? (ID-GAM-80)

A	It was originated as a result of UN conference held in India.
B	It failed to detect and send out proper warning signals on 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami.
C	It heavily relies on data obtained through live satellite imagery of tectonic plates.
D	It comes in to service in 2006.

Question 16 Explanation: 

The only thing you have to remember is that it came online after the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake. This is not a tricky "remember the facts" type of question.

Question 17

When analyzing slope stability, the Safety Factor (SF) is said to be within the stable limits when.... (ID-GAM-36)

A	SF is equal to 0.
B	SF is greater than 100.
C	SF is greater than 1.
D	SF is equal 100.
E	SF is equal to 1.

Question 17 Explanation: 

Safety Factor (SF) is the ratio of resisting forces to driving forces.

Question 18

Which of the following is the best definition of rock strength? (ID-GAM-16)

A	How far above a standard failure envelope, a rock can withstand without failure.
B	The ability for a rock to hold a certain weight of materials.
C	The maximum stress a rock can experience before failure.
D	The minimum stress required to increase the pressure within the rock above 1000 N.
E	The ability for a rock to withstand shear forces.

Question 19

Some soil profiles have E horizon. E horizon is characterized by which of the following? (ID-GAM-04)

A	Unweathered or unaltered materials.
B	Iron-bearing components.
C	None of the answers are correct.
D	Highly concentrated organic matter such as decomposing or decomposed leaves.
E	Extensive organic root networks.

Question 20

Hydrostatic stress... (ID-GAM-55)

A	typically result in negative pore pressure in deeper parts of subsurface.
B	is the pressure that is a controlled by the contact surface area between grains within sediments.
C	typically higher in subduction zones.
D	typically increases with depth.
E	is the pressure exerted by liquids such as lakes and rivers on the subsurface.

Question 21

Given the following information, calculate the Factor of Safety (SF). (ID-GAM-38)
Driving force = 4.2 x 10¹⁰ Nm
Resisting force = 12.6 x 10¹⁰ Nm
Shear strength = 2.0 x 10⁶ Nm

A	SF = 0.33
B	SF = 6
C	SF = 6
D	SF = 2
E	SF = 3

Question 21 Explanation: 

SF = resisting force /driving force
SF = (12.6 x 10¹⁰ Nm)/(4.2 x 10¹⁰ Nm) =3

Question 22

The layers between the two yellow dash lines on the following picture is within the zone of leaching and also includes the top soil layer. Which of the following soil horizons would most likely to be present in this highlighted section? (ID-GAM-02)

A	A , E and O
B	B , E and O
C	A , B and R
D	B , C and R
E	B , R and C

Question 22 Explanation: 

A and E are within the zone of leeching and the top layer you observe in this picture is the O horizon.

Question 23

What is an active fault? (ID-GAM-45)

A	If a fault has moved at last 10 cm during the last 10 years.
B	If the fault has produced significant earthquakes during the last few years.
C	The definition is depend on the geological regulations in a given region.
D	The the fault has produced some seismic activities during the last 5 years.
E	If the fault has moved at least 10 cm during the last 5 years.

Question 24

What cause the majority of large scale soil erosion around the world? (ID-GAM-06)

A	High temperatures and pressures
B	Boulder size sediments
C	Low temperatures and pressures
D	High slope angle or relief
E	Water runoff

Question 25

What is geodesy? (ID-GAM-53)

A	A type of movement observed in ocean currents during a tsunami.
B	None of the listed answers are correct.
C	A situation where odd or uncommon minerals are found within rocks.
D	A branch of science that involved in study of Earth's tectonic plates movement.
E	The process in which the magnetic reversal occurs.

Question 26

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label III? (ID-GAM-19)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength
B	Ultimate strength
C	Rupture point
D	Rupture or fracture strength

Question 27

During a Geotechnical Mitigation process, which of the following would result in safer environment? (ID-GAM-60)

A	Decrease in soil shear strength
B	Decrease in grain friction.
C	Increase in pore pressure
D	Increase in internal friction angle.
E	Decrease in effective stress

Question 27 Explanation: 

S = (σ–u) tan Φ Check this...

Question 28

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label II? (ID-GAM-18)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Ultimate strength
B	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength
C	Rupture point
D	Rupture or fracture strength

Question 29

Why does soil chronosequence important? (ID-GAM-07)

A	It can be used to generate groundwater table.
B	It can be used to evaluate geologic stability and conditions in the past and predict future conditions.
C	There is no economic reasons for soil chronosequence, but it is used in research by scientists.
D	It can be used to determine the porosity and permeability of older layers, which can be used to interpret groundwater drainage patterns.
E	It can be used to determine the current fertility of soils.

Question 30

Which of the following mechanism would produce earthquakes primarily due to shear forces? (ID-GAM-44)

A	Strike-slip faulting
B	Reverse faulting
C	Spreading of Mid Ocean Ridges
D	Normal faulting

Question 31

This type of wave associated with earthquakes moves along the surface by oscillating side to side as opposed to up and down and only produce horizontal motion. (ID-GAM-47)

A	Rayleigh waves
B	Body waves
C	P waves
D	S waves
E	Love waves

Question 32

Which of the following could potentially would not result in a sinkhole? Note, all listed answers could cause sinkholes, but one is least likely. (ID-GAM-40)

A	Liquefaction caused by earthquakes and other naturally occurring vibrations.
B	Chemical weathering of subsurface limestone.
C	Subsurface natural drainage systems.
D	Increased in overburden pressure due to urbanization and building developments.
E	Intrusion of igneous magmas across metamorphic rocks in the subsurface.

Question 32 Explanation: 

Metamorphic rocks are typically strong solid rocks. While intrusion of magmas across these types of rocks could reduce the strength of rocks, it is not usually large enough to cause sinkholes. Magma intrusions could also potentially increased the strength of rocks by fusing existing caverns and fractures.

Question 33

What is the major assumption in the dilatancy-diffusion model (theory) of earthquakes? (ID-GAM-65)

A	Pressure is the primary cause of all earthquakes.
B	Earthquake zones are always accompanied by volcanic activities.
C	Earthquakes are caused as a result of significant movement of tectonic plates.
D	At first stage of earthquake development, the elastic strain increases in rocks.
E	Earthquakes and other tectonic activities are the major driving forces for global warming.

Question 33 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 34

Which factors have the greatest impact against environmental law? (ID-GAM-13)

A	Political donations.
B	Sudden unexpected failures in environmental mitigation programs.
C	Natural animal activities such as bears in populated neighborhoods.
D	Natural environmental problems such as floods
E	Wealth and power.

Question 34 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 35

During a subsurface study for an agricultural development project for the City of Calgary, you found the soil samples are close to 100% dry. Which of the following statement would you include in your final report as a Professional Geoscientist? (ID-GAM-58)

A	Pore pressure within the dry zone is most likely at zero or close to zero.
B	Area is not suitable for agricultural development.
C	Water table must be above the dry zone.
D	Dry zone must be located within a unsaturated zone.
E	Subsurface geology must be composed of 100% or close to 100% impermeable layers.

Question 36

What what term is used to describe the point of origin of an earthquake? (ID-GAM-42)

A	Epicenter
B	Foreshock
C	Scarp
D	Hypocenter
E	Focus

Question 37

What is a supershear? (ID-GAM-51)

A	It is an event that occurs in all earthquakes where the epicenter is directly on top of the focus.
B	It occurs when amplitude attenuates over a very short period of time.
C	It occurs when two shear waves compliments each other leading to higher frequencies.
D	It occurs when the amplitude of shear waves exceeds the velocity of primary wave.
E	It occurs when rupture along the fault surface occurs at speeds in excess of the seismic shear wave.

Question 38

Which of the following best describe expansive soils? (ID-GAM-11)

A	They have the ability to increase in volume with change water content.
B	They have the ability to decrease in volume with change water content.
C	They are mostly made up of silicate minerals such as quartz and pyroxenes.
D	They have larger soil particles than other types of soils.
E	They have the ability to either increase or decrease in volume with change water content.

Question 39

One of the movies you watched in class, a character picked up a rock and called it a dolomite. Why would you disagree with this statement? (ID-GAM-20)

A	The environment which the movie scene took place cannot be producing calcite.
B	It could be quartz.
C	It could be calcite.
D	Physical appearance of the rock sample is not that of calcite.
E	This class is so hip and crazy.

Question 40

The case study of Lake Peigneur - Jefferson Island salt mine collapse is primarily cause by... (ID-GAM-41)

A	increased overburden pressures directly on top of the salt mines.
B	lack of understanding of subsurface salt deposits by the mining company.
C	reduced drainage of subsurface fluids such as water and oil.
D	drainage of the Lake Peigneur into the Jefferson Island through naturally existing fractures.
E	poor planing of drilling by the oil company.

Question 41

According to the worldwide magnitude and frequency of earthquakes by descriptor classification, the term "Major Earthquake" is used for seismic events that exceed what magnitude? (ID-GAM-43)

A	Magnitude 3
B	Magnitude 6
C	Magnitude 5
D	Magnitude 7
E	Magnitude 4

Question 42

This type of volcanoes has a beautiful cone shape (Eg. Mount St. Helens, USA) and is characterized by maga with an intermediate silica content of about 60%. (ID-GAM-72)

A	Composite volcanoes
B	Cinder cone volcanoes
C	Dome volcanoes
D	None of the listed answers are correct.
E	Shield volcanoes

Question 43

How does the retention pond flood mitigation method work? (ID-GAM-33)

A	Increasing the volume of water in rivers.
B	Increasing the penetration of water in the subsurface.
C	Increasing the discharge rate of rivers.
D	Reducing the storm drainage discharge rate.
E	Holding water from a flood indefinitely.

Question 44

In Canada, radon gas pollution is often observed in houses. It is a dangerous gas that cause lung cancer and is produced by what type of rock or mineral? (ID-GAM-23)

A	Iron and metal oxides bearing rocks
B	Gold bearing rocks
C	Calcium bearing rocks
D	Uranium bearing rocks
E	Cesium bearing rocks

Question 45

Majority of volcanic gas is composed of what type of compound? (ID-GAM-71)

A	methane
B	ammonia
C	carbon dioxide
D	nitrogen
E	water

Question 46

Long Beach, USA subsidence is caused by... (ID-GAM-63)

A	tectonic activities near the San Andreas Fault.
B	natural seepage of fluids from the subsurface.
C	human activities such as building large structures hence increasing the pressure in subsurface and increasing subsidence.
D	human extraction of fluids from the subsurface.

Question 47

Which of the following trace element is associated with goiter which is caused by the enlargement of the thyroid gland? (ID-GAM-78)

A	Radon
B	Iodine
C	Fluorine
D	Manganese
E	Arsenic

Question 48

Which of the following is true? (ID-GAM-14)

A	Stress is force per unit area while strain is the deformation resulted from stress.
B	Stress can be directly calculated using deformation of rocks.
C	Strain only occurs in solid mediums while stress occurs in both solids, liquids and gases.
D	Strain is force per unit area while stress is the force that result in deformation.
E	Stress can be directly calculated using alignment of mineral grains and position of fractures.

Question 48 Explanation: 

Note stress is not observed or measured in nature. We measure strain and infer stress using strain evaluations.

Question 49

What is the most common test performed on rocks to determine their strengths? (ID-GAM-21)

A	Uniform Comprehensive Force test.
B	Common Load test.
C	Unconfined Comprehensive Strength test.
D	Extensional Strength test.
E	Unified Conditional Strength test.

Question 50

Which of the following landslide type has the slowest lateral movement of earth materials? (ID-GAM-35)

A	Soil creeps
B	Mud flows
C	High angle rockfalls
D	Earth flows
E	Debris avalanches

Question 50 Explanation: 

Soil creeps could move few cm per day to 100s of meters per day depending on variety of geological conditions. But typically the term "creep" is used to describe very slow (cm scale) movement of earth.

Question 51

What properties of rock fracture systems are most important to geologists and engineers? (ID-GAM-22)

A	Depth and overburden pressures that resulted in fractures.
B	Frequency and orientation of fractures.
C	None of the answers are correct.
D	Temperature and pressure that causes the fracture network.
E	Length and width of fractures.

Question 51 Explanation: 

This is a difficult question because four answers are correct. But in multiple choice exams, you should be able to choose the most important factors. This will become very important in some advanced classes. Welcome to the University new comers!

Question 52

Which of the following type of volcano commonly produce rhyolitic magma and has a higher tendency for explosive eruptions compare to others? (ID-GAM-74)

A	Composite volcanoes
B	Cinder cone volcanoes
C	Shield volcanoes
D	Dome volcanoes

Question 53

Which of the following statement is true about seismic waves generated by earthquakes? (ID-GAM-50)

A	Seismic amplitude arrival times become shorter (faster) as you move away from the epicenter.
B	Majority of the shaking of large tall buildings at a significant distance to epicenter is caused by high frequency seismic waves.
C	Magnitude of an earthquake at the focus is directly measured by seismic monitoring centers.
D	Seismic frequency attenuation effect is large with the loner distance from the epicenter.
E	P wave travel at a much slower velocity than the S saves.

Question 53 Explanation: 

Attenuation is a reduction of signal strength during traveling across different mediums. Attenuation weaken and reduce the frequency of waves. Geophysics majors in this class and Geology students who will take Geophysics classes as options will learn about signal attenuation in depth in future classes.

Question 54

Majority of the rotational slides or slump type landslides are observed under what conditions? (ID-GAM-37)

A	Areas closer to heat sources such as volcanoes.
B	Areas with large volume of unconsolidated soils.
C	Areas with subsurface characterized by alternating strong and weak layers of rocks (eg. schist foliation planes of weakness).
D	Areas with large volume of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
E	Areas with high seismic activities such as plate boundary regions (eg, Japan).

Question 55

According to the 2016 radon gas concentrations study in Calgary area by a University of Calgary research team, at least one in how many homes are over the acceptable maximum limit of radon concentration (in Calgary)? (ID-GAM-76)

A	1 in 30
B	1 in 5
C	1 in 100
D	1 in 60
E	1 in 10

Question 56

Majority of solid waste in modern day urban centers are composed of which of the following? (ID-GAM-24)

A	Plastics
B	Paper
C	Metals
D	Wood
E	Glass

Question 56 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 57

On the following stress-strain diagram, what is highlighted by the the position label I? (ID-GAM-17)

Original: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deformation_%28engineering%29

A	Ultimate strength
B	Proportional elastic limit or yield strength
C	Rupture point
D	Rupture or fracture strength

Question 58

High concentration of which of the following trace element in our environment is associated with deafness? (ID-GAM-77)

A	Manganese
B	Fluorine
C	Iodine
D	Radon
E	Arsenic

Question 59

Which of the following is involved in the environmental mitigation process? (ID-GAM-12)

A	Detailed evaluation of several selected sites.
B	Finding methods to minimize environmental damage.
C	Identification of important environmental issues.
D	Creation of a plan for land-use for the project.

Question 59 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 60

Subsidence can result in all of the following, except... (ID-GAM-61)

A	Flooding
B	Ground cracks
C	Change in the direction of river flows.
D	Uplift Hint: Common misconception!
E	All of these can be caused by subsidence.

Question 60 Explanation: 

Note, uplift can be caused by subsidence. If there is a local subsidence, it could result in uplift of another area as the forces in subsurface changes dramatically over period of time.

Question 61

Shield volcanoes have ______ bases and ______ inclined slopes. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-70)

A	narrow , gently
B	narrow , steeply
C	broad , steeply
D	broad , gently

Question 62

Drainage control can stabilize a potentially hazardous areas by performing which of the following fundamental task? (ID-GAM-39)

A	Increasing the pore pressure within the subsurface hence increasing the friction between potential failure planes and the subsurface.
B	Completely diverting all possible water drainage into the hazardous zones. Hint: It is impossible to completely divert all sources.
C	Reducing the possibility of subsurface springs within the hazardous zones hence reducing the water accumulation in the region.
D	Reducing the water flow within the subsurface hence decreasing the pore pressure within subsurface that could encourage landslides.

Question 62 Explanation: 

This question is a bit difficult question. You should know that reducing water within subsurface sediments will also reduce the pore pressures and increase the friction between grains. This will add to the resisting force hence lowering the possibility of landslides.

Question 63

Which seismic wave is released first during an earthquake? (ID-GAM-79)

A	Rayleigh wave
B	P-wave
C	None of the answers are correct.
D	S-wave
E	Love wave

Question 63 Explanation: 

All seismic waves are released at the same time during a seismic event. However, the arrival time to a detection center at a some distance varies with P-wave being the first wave to arrive.

Question 64

A tsunami that travels towards the nearby coast is known as ______ and another tsunami that travels out to the deep ocean is known as ______. (ID-GAM-66)

A	high intensity tsunami , low intensity tsunami
B	Japanese tsunami , Chinese tsunami
C	low intensity tsunami , high intensity tsunami
D	coastal tsunami , distal tsunami
E	local tsunami , distant tsunami

Question 65

Seismic frequency can be best described as... (ID-GAM-48)

A	distance between the peak and trough of a wavelet.
B	vibrations per period.
C	length of signal wavelets.
D	wavelets per minute.
E	cycles per second.

Question 66

The area between the water table and the ground surface is known as... (ID-GAM-26)

A	low pressure zone.
B	leaching zone.
C	vadose zone.
D	accumulation zone.
E	void zone.

Question 67

This type of volcanoes are relatively small and formed from mostly tephra. (ID-GAM-73)

A	Shield volcanoes
B	Cinder cone volcanoes
C	Dome volcanoes
D	Composite volcanoes
E	All of the listed types of volcanoes can have such characteristics.

Question 68

What are seismic gaps? (ID-GAM-67)

A	Time duration intervals between each arrival of seismic wavelets to the monitoring center.
B	Difference in arrival times between the P wave and S wave at the monitoring center.
C	Distance between the first geophone and the epicenter of an earthquake.
D	It describes our lack of understanding of seismic events due to complexity of plate tectonics and fault propagation mechanisms.
E	Time duration between major earthquakes near an active zone.

Question 69

When is a soil sample block is said to be saturated (geological engineering tests)? (ID-GAM-10)

A	If the pore space is completely saturated with gas(s).
B	If the pore space is completely filled with fluid(s).
C	If the sample has no pore space due to tight compaction.
D	If the sample shows no evidence of flow or fluid migration.
E	If the sample has no porosity due to tight compaction.

Question 69 Explanation: 

Typically it is water saturation. In Alberta, you often come across oil or petroleum or organic fluid saturated samples. You will learn about these in detail in higher level geology classes.

Question 70

As the elastic deformation decreases... (ID-GAM-59)

A	ductility increases.
B	brittleness increases.
C	None of the answers are correct.
D	possibility of faulting decreases.
E	density increases.

Question 71

Which of the following statement is true about flash floods? (ID-GAM-32)

A	They are becoming more uncommon occurrence due to global warming.
B	There has been no record of flash floods in arid regions such as Las Vegas, Nevada.
C	They are typically associated with upper parts of the drainage basin.
D	They exclusively occur in meandering river floodplains.
E	They are mostly governed by global climatic changes not local weather events.

Question 72

Capillary water between grains are observed within the ______ zone where it has ______ pore pressure. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-56)

A	high pressure , positive
B	saturated , negative
C	saturated , positive
D	unsaturated , negative
E	unsaturated , positive
F	high pressure , negative

Question 73

According to the soil classification introduced in the textbook (Keller), what order name would be given to the following soil description? (ID-GAM-05)
"No horizon development; many are recent alluvium; synthetic soils are included; are often young soils."

A	Entisols
B	Vertisols
C	Histosols
D	Aridisols
E	Ulfisols

Question 73 Explanation: 

Environmental Geology 9th Edition by Edward A. Keller; ISBN-978-0-321-64375-9

Question 74

What is the difference between magma and lava? (ID-GAM-68)

A	Magma solidify at much higher temperatures than lava.
B	Molten rock and minerals in subsurface is known as magma while it is on the surface known as lava.
C	Lava is produced when the molten solution has at least 40% of water or hydrous minerals.
D	Magma has a higher viscosity and low flow rate than lava.
E	Magma is produced at plate boundaries without volcanic activity while lava is produced at volcanic zones.

Question 75

Zone of accumulation have which of the following soil horizon(s)? (ID-GAM-03)

A	C
B	O , A and E
C	A and C
D	B
E	B and C

Question 76

According to the EPA in the United States, what is the most common cause of death? (ID-GAM-75)

A	Radon gas
B	Airline crashes
C	Drunk driving
D	Drowning
E	Natural and man made fires

Question 76 Explanation: 

The second highest is the radon gas.

Question 77

Granular soil texture is most common in ______ horizons and platy texture is most common in ______ horizons. Answers are in respective order. (ID-GAM-09)

A	A type , E type
B	B type , C type
C	C type , E type
D	A type , B type
E	B type , E type

Question 78

Why did Canada sold asbestos from Quebec to India as recently as 2012? (ID-GAM-62)

A	Political corruption within the Canadian Provincial and Federal Governments.
B	Pressure from the Indian Government to keep the Canadian mine open.
C	McGill University study proved that asbestos is safe for consumers.
D	Strong independent activist who advocated for cheap building materials for India.
E	There are no other cheaper alternative to asbestos in India or elsewhere.

Question 78 Explanation: 

Note: John Corbett McDonald from McGill University took money from asbestos industries to publish reports supporting the industry. However, it was the political support that allowed such activities to take place at the first place. Even today, most Canadians are in denial of corruption in Canada because we are busy pointing fingers at other countries. It wasn't India's corruption that resulted in this issue, it was Canada's corruption.

Question 79

Which of the following is not a surface wave associated with earthquakes? (ID-GAM-46)

A	Love waves
B	None of the above answers are correct.
C	Rayleigh waves
D	Tsunami
E	S waves

Question 80

Soil particles often cling together in aggregates called ______ that are classified according to ______ into several types. Answers in respective order. (ID-GAM-08)

A	subsoils , mineral assemblage
B	peds , mineral assemblage
C	molds , shape
D	peds , shape
E	molds , mineral assemblage

Question 80 Explanation: 

Shapes or textures

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