Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Question 1

What is the process of transgressions? (ID-SSM2-13)

A	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.
B	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of fall in sea level.
C	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.
D	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of drop in sea level.

Question 2

A geological formation can have several lithofacies. (ID-SSM2-28)

A	False
B	True

Question 3

What is the difference between avulsion and migration? (ID-SSM2-38)

A	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But avulsion is found in braided rivers and migration found in meandering rivers.
B	Migration is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Avulsion is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.
C	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But migration is found in braided rivers and avulsion found in meandering rivers.
D	Avulsion is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Migration is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.

Question 4

Which of the following is associated with lake turbidite deposits? (ID-SSM2-90)

A	Thermocline waters
B	Sediment load dominated by fine grains
C	Oxic environment
D	Hypolimnion waters
E	Epilimnion waters

Question 4 Explanation:

Hypolimnion = cold water and it is below the thermocline. It is also anoxic.

Question 5

Meandering rivers most likely to formed in areas with... (ID-SSM2-34)

A	high gradient.
B	shallow unstable channels.
C	low gradient.
D	stable channels carrying a lose sediment load (such as sand/mud).
E	rivers with high width to depth ratio.

Question 5 Explanation:

Low gradient=low width to depth ratio. In some areas the difference is so small, it is harder for a Geologist to find the downstream direction (assuming river is not flowing).

While the meander is caused by several factors; the main factor is the low slope of the channel.

Question 6

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section C is__I__ and these deltas become__II__. (ID-SSM2-41)

A	I. tidal dominated II. estuary
B	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains
C	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains
D	I. wave dominated II. estuary

Question 6 Explanation:

Estuary is an area which mixing of salt and fresh water can occur as a direct result of low slope and reverse(landwards) ocean tides.

Question 7

What is the most common type of flow that contributes to the creation of alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-22)

A	oscillatory flows
B	sediment-gravity flows
C	density flows
D	diagenesis flow

Question 8

Please the following items from bottom to top (aka, A to E) according to ideal Bouma sequence. (ID-SSM2-57)

1. normally graded bed (fining upwards)
2. silt and mud
3. ripples
4. lamination
5. fine lamination

A	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 2 (top)
B	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 5 --> 3 --> 2 (top)
C	3 (bottom) --> 4 --> 1 --> 2 --> 5 (top)
D	2 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 1 (top)

Question 8 Explanation:

more info-external link

Question 9

Typically what is the radius of debris flow alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-82)

A	Hundreds of thousands of kilometers.
B	1 km to tens of kilometers.
C	One to ten kilometers.
D	Less than 20 meters.
E	100s of meters to a few kilometers.

Question 9 Explanation:

As a good Geologist, you should know the typical shapes and sizes for different types of alluvial fans. This will help identify different environments and improve geological interpretations.

Question 10

What is the difference between Calcite and Aragonite? (ID-SSM2-61)

A	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is calcium magnesium carbonate, CaMg(CO₃)₂.
B	Calcite has a trigonal crystal form, aragonite has an orthorhombic crystal form.
C	Calcite is a carbonate mineral while aragonite is a silicate mineral.
D	Calcite has a different chemical properties than aragonite because calcite has an extra calcium ion.
E	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is iron carbonate, FeCO₃.

Question 11

What would you always expect to find in an alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-18)

A	Avulsion
B	Distributaries
C	Extinct channels.
D	Tributaries
E	Overbanks

Question 12

Dedolomitisation result in which of the following? (ID-SSM2-76)

A	Increase in the normal level of water table.
B	Calcium sulphate enrichment of groundwater.
C	Decrease in the normal level of water table.
D	Increase the salinity of the groundwater.
E	Replacement of dolomite by anhydrites.

Question 13

Which type of alluvial fans most likely to preserve imbrication of clasts and up stream cross-stratification? (ID-SSM2-85)

A	Subaerial debris flows
B	Stream-channel fans
C	Channel banks
D	Sheetflood deposition

Question 14

When you move from bottom to top in ideal turbidite Bouma sequence (A -> E), the flow velocity will... (ID-SSM2-03)

A	increase
B	None of the answers are correct because it could either increase or decrease depending on the environment.
C	decrease
D	remain consent
E	fluctuate between high and low

Question 15

What type of environment would you expect to find this type of facies? (ID-SSM2-46)

A	fluvial dominated delta
B	meandering river
C	tidal dominated delta
D	wave dominated delta
E	braided river
F	alluvial fan

Question 16

When working on a scientific project,__A__ comes before__B__. (ID-SSM2-12)

A	A. analysis B. observations
B	A. interpretations B. observations
C	A. observations B. analysis
D	A. alcohol B. dirty girls
E	A. observations B. interpretations

Question 17

Multiple interconnected channels are most likely to form within.... (ID-SSM2-78)

A	overbanks of lakes.
B	meandering rivers.
C	anastomosing rivers.
D	underwater fluvial deposits.

Question 18

According to Dunham Classification, this type of rock has an extensive organic framework. (ID-SSM2-67)

A	Rudstone
B	Carbonate mudstone
C	Wackestone
D	Boundstone
E	Grainstone

Question 18 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 19

Sandy braided river systems will form __A__ and gravel braided rivers systems will form __B__. (ID-SSM2-56)

A	A. levees B. point bars.
B	A. longitudinal bars B. transverse bars
C	A. unstable channels B. stable channels
D	A. transverse bars B. longitudinal bars
E	A. stable channels B. unstable channels

Question 20

Turbidity flows can most likely occur in what kind of environment? (ID-SSM2-08)

A	rivers with low sediment load
B	muddy rivers enter the lake
C	areas with high friction
D	this question is stupid

Question 21

Imbricated clasts often can be found in this type of system. (ID-SSM2-45)

A	wave energy delta system.
B	tidal energy delta system.
C	sandy braided system.
D	gravel braided system.

Question 22

Pedogenesis is caused by which of the following processes within sediments? (ID-SSM2-86)

A	Chemical and biological
B	Chemical and mechanical
C	Chemical and nuclear
D	Physical, chemical and biological
E	Physical and chemical

Question 23

In alluvial fan transverse cross sections a geologist will___. (ID-SSM2-20)

A	observe a increase in base level moving downstream (positive change in slope).
B	observe a drop in base level moving downstream (negative change in slope).
C	observe an increase and then a decrease in base level moving downstream (like a bra cup).
D	observe a no change in base level or overall elevation since the sediments get deposited in a rapid rate.

Question 24

Inconsistent change in water level is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. (ID-SSM2-35)

A	False
B	True

Question 24 Explanation:

Centrifugal force(F_c) is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. While gravity also play a role, it is minor compared to F_c because the low-slope.

Question 25

Crevasse splays are deposits found in __A__ systems and generally have __B__ grains than flood plain facies. (ID-SSM2-36)

A	A. alluvial B. coarser
B	A. alluvial B. finer
C	A. fluvial B. finer
D	A. fluvial B. coarser

Question 26

According the the classification of trace fossils based on interpretation of the activity of organism, which of the following is typically associated with crawling, gracing and feeding traces? (ID-SSM2-96)

A	Fodinichina
B	Dominichnia
C	Repichinia
D	Cubichina
E	Passichnia

Question 27

Cyanobacterial communities that have an irregular rather than layered form is known as... (ID-SSM2-63)

A	Stromatolites
B	Thrombolites
C	Ahermatypic serpulids
D	Oncoids
E	Stromatoporoids

Question 28

Where would you expect braided rivers to form? (ID-SSM2-79)

A	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with low sediment load.
B	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with high sediment load.
C	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with low sediment load.
D	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with high sediment load.

Question 29

These type of fragments commonly found within limestone are faecal pellets of marine organisms such as gastropods. (ID-SSM2-64)

A	Ooids
B	Oncoids
C	Pisoids
D	Peloids

Question 30

The submarine delta deposits from when... (ID-SSM2-47)

A	density of effluent = density of the ambient
B	density of effluent/density of the ambient = infinity
C	density of effluent < density of the ambient
D	density of effluent > density of the ambient Hint: aka hyperpycnal flow

Question 30 Explanation:

Density of effluent (river water) is higher than the density of the ambient (sea water) causing river sediments to transport further and deposit in the ocean.

Question 31

What is the best reasonable paleoenvironment interpretation for the following geological observations? (ID-SSM2-81)
-Several channels filled with sandy to muddy deposits
-Most of the channel fills overlaps each others
-Both vertically and laterally the channels are closer to each other

A	Must have been a submarine deposit channels within a large underwater deltaic environment.
B	Sediment load must have been enriched in sand relative to muddy and other materials.
C	River avulsion must have occurred with a much lower rate of channel fill and higher subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.
D	River avulsion must have occurred with a much higher rate of channel fill and slow subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.
E	Several rivers must have been cut across the paleo flood plane at the same period of time, resulting multiple channels.

Question 32

Alluvial fans are differ from deltas because alluvial fans are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. (ID-SSM2-50)

A	True
B	False

Question 32 Explanation:

Both alluvial fans AND deltas are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. However, alluvial fans are deposited at the mouth of the canyon when it enters a low lying land while deltas are formed at the mouth of the river where a body of sediments deposited in a large body of standing water (ocean, lake).

Question 33

The process which the pressure difference drives the water from cut bank to point bar is caused by... (ID-SSM2-44)

A	helicoidal flow.
B	gravitational force.
C	sediment accumulation.
D	gravitational flow.

Question 34

It is impossible to have a base level lower than the sea level. (ID-SSM2-14)

A	True
B	False

Question 34 Explanation:

Because the base level is actually the LOCAL lowest point in a river/lake. Imagine if you have a river 100s of km long and base level in can be lower than sea level in some area, but as long as gradient of the overall slope is downwards, the water will flow.

Question 35

What is Eustasy? (ID-SSM2-31)

A	It is the term given to absolute sea level.
B	It is a drug that most geologists take to get high in the woods.
C	It is the term given to local sea level.
D	It is the term given to local base level of a fluvial system.

Question 36

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section B is.... (ID-SSM2-39)

A	fluvial dominated.
B	tidal dominated.
C	alluvial dominated.
D	wave dominated.

Question 37

Your job title is "Master of Exploitation of Natural Resources". If you were to search for hydro-carbons, which would be the best place to start(with the lowest cost to the company)? (ID-SSM2-27)

A	on a large vegetated point bar
B	an alluvial fan
C	on a river bed
D	an oxbow lake

Question 37 Explanation:

An oxbow lake is the best for coal formation. In general it takes less resources(both human and technological) to extract coal from an oxbow lake than extract oil from an alluvial fan. This question is testing your IQ. 🙂

Question 38

Walther's law state... (ID-SSM2-30)

A	the vertical succession of facies reflects lateral changes in environment.
B	high energy currents can flow upstream, if the total energy of the current is higher than the gravitational gradient.
C	rise in sea level cause regression.
D	only beds with above 6 cm in thickness can be consider as a facies.

Question 38 Explanation:

Another way to state this would be; only those facies that were deposited side-by-side may be juxtaposed vertically.

Question 39

Which of the following would increase the sediment accommodation space? (ID-SSM2-53)

A	increase in elevation
B	increase in sediment load Hint: this will decrease the accommodation space due to higher rate of sed accumulation.
C	subsidence
D	uplift

Question 40

Majority of modern day seawater is concentrated with which of the following ion? (ID-SSM2-69)

A	Calcium
B	Magnesium
C	Potassium
D	Chlorine
E	Sodium

Question 41

When moving from A to B on the following flow chart (with respect to deltas), (ID-SSM2-52)

(A) Channels --> Levees --> Crevasse splay --> Floodplain (B)

A	the density decreases.
B	the grain size increases.
C	the grain size decreases.
D	the density increases.
E	the bioturbation decreases.

Question 42

In lakes where sediment plumes and turbidity currents are the main transport mechanisms... (ID-SSM2-91)

A	shallow lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.
B	shallow lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.
C	deep lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.
D	deep lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.
E	None of the answers are correct.

Question 43

Alluvial fan deposits are typically associated with ______ facies and rivers deposits are typically associated with ______ facies. (ID-SSM2-83)

A	delta , ephemeral lake
B	ephemeral lake , estuarine
C	sheet flood , aeolian dunes
D	estuarine , sheet flood

Question 44

What type of flow is turbidity flow? (ID-SSM2-01)

A	Density Flow
B	Liquified Flow
C	Sediment Gravity Flow
D	Debris Flow

Question 45

Which of the following describe oncoids? (ID-SSM2-66)

A	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.
B	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.
C	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
D	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.
E	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.

Question 46

Which of the following is the best possible location for a oil (petroleum) exploration? (ID-SSM2-73)

A	Younger/modern point bar
B	Older point bar
C	Older oxbow lake
D	Younger/modern river bed
E	Older alluvial fan

Question 47

Chert is mostly composed of which of the following mineral? (ID-SSM2-72)

A	Halite
B	Quartz
C	Glass
D	Apatite
E	Epsomite

Question 48

A Professional Geologist have made the following observations: (ID-SSM2-24)
-active and extinct distributaries
-poorly sorted and mostly matrix supported
-reverse grading in basal section
-very steep surface with no vegetation
A possible environment for such observations could be....

A	debris flow dominated fan
B	low sediment load river bed
C	humid-desert extreme weather dominated river bed
D	high sediment load river bed
E	stream flow dominated fan

Question 49

Bonus; Calgary Elbow River will fall under what type of river system? (ID-SSM2-59)

A	meandering
B	braided
C	graded
D	anastomosing

Question 50

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 3 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-43)

A	tidal energy based delta (smear)
B	wave energy based delta (cupcake)
C	tidal energy based delta (bird's foot)
D	wave energy based delta (smear)

Question 51

On tidally dominated delta formations, lagoons can be identified by their fine grained mud (Fm) and/or rich organic content. (ID-SSM2-58)

A	False, that's a longitudinal bar.
B	True
C	False, that's a point bar.

Question 52

Where can you find the apex of the alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-19)

A	Close to the canyon.
B	Close to the lowest base level.
C	In the most expanded area.
D	Close to an extinct channel.

Question 52 Explanation:

Apex is the first point in which the flow expansion occur as a result of widening the area of flow.

Question 53

As the amount of evaporation increases in lakes, the type of mineral precipitation varies. Which of the following has the correct order of mineral precipitation as lakes environment move from low evaporation to high evaporation? (ID-SSM2-94)

A	Gypsum - Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite
B	Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum - Halite
C	Calcium carbonate - Halite - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum
D	Calcium carbonate - Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite
E	Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Calcium carbonate - Halite

Question 54

What is anhydrite? (ID-SSM2-70)

A	It is a type of quartz that lacks water.
B	It is the fibrous mineral version of halite.
C	It is a type of precipitate occurs between grains of iron rich sediments.
D	It is the dehydrated and fibrous version of sylvite.
E	It is the dehydrated version of gypsum.

Question 55

How large is the lateral width of a crevasse splay(generally)? (ID-SSM2-37)

A	It can varies widely between 10 of cms to 1000s of Kms depend on the environment.
B	100s of Kms
C	100s of ms
D	1000s of Kms
E	10 of cms

Question 56

Which of the following characteristic of lake deposit is incorrect? (ID-SSM2-95)

A	Typically sands are moderately well sorted.
B	Very high degree of palaeocurrents preservation with extensive paleocurrent networks.
C	Often wave ripples and very fine parallel lamination are observed.
D	Dominated by sandstone, mudstone, fine-grained limestones and evaporites lithologies.
E	Facies an be best described as commonly occur with fluvial deposits, evaporites and associated with aeolian facies.

Question 56 Explanation:

The lake environments are relatively clam. Hence, development of palaeocurrents is very minimal and in most cases insignificant. While clam waters are good for preservation of sedimentary structures, palaeocurrents are not usually observed in lake type settings.

Question 57

What are ephemeral lakes? (ID-SSM2-89)

A	Lake that are hydrologically closed and produce large deposits of precipitate minerals.
B	Lakes that form in a volcanic crater or caldera.
C	Lakes that are temporary bodies of water that exist for short periods of time.
D	Lakes with very high heat capacity hence able to reduce the temperate of the surrounding regions.

Question 58

Choose all the correct statements. (more than one answer) (ID-SSM2-49)

A	point bar is an area of high erosion.
B	ε cross beds form in the point bar side of a meandering river.
C	braided rivers are part of alluvial systems.
D	imbricated clasts can be observed om gravel braided system.
E	anastomosing rivers are avulsion dominated rivers.

Question 59

An oxbow lake most likely to be formed... (ID-SSM2-32)

A	in a braided river.
B	near a meandering river.
C	in the anastomosing river.
D	in a high density flow dominated stream.
E	near a braided river.

Question 60

Alluvial fans dominated by debris flows tend to form with __A__, while stream-flow dominated fans tend to form with __B__. (ID-SSM2-25)

A	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a small area
B	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a small area
C	A. steeper slopes in a wide area B. shallower slopes in a small area
D	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a wide area
E	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a wide area

Question 61

______ is an important source of industrial potash that occurs associated with halite. (ID-SSM2-71)

A	Gypsum
B	Selenite
C	Epsomite
D	Sylvite
E	Apatite

Question 62

Where can a sheetflood (sheet erosion) can be observed? (ID-SSM2-26)

A	gradual erosional environments such as a beach/river bed.
B	all alluvial fans
C	debris flow dominated fans
D	stream-flow dominated fans
E	poorly-sorted load dominated currents

Question 63

Which of the following describe ooids? (ID-SSM2-65)

A	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.
B	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.
C	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
D	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.
E	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.

Question 64

A core sample can be exclusively used to identify the depositional environment with strong geologic constraints. (ID-SSM2-11)

A	True if the core penetrated across different strata.
B	True if the core is taken perpendicular to the natural depositional surfaces.
C	False
D	True if the core samples are taken within few lateral meters from each other.

Question 64 Explanation:

A core sample by itself cannot be used to identify the depositional environment. Several samples are needed to analyze the geological conditions in a given area.

Question 65

The process of compaction will result in... (choose the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-09)

A	precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
B	reduce porosity causing beds to be thinner and dehydrated.
C	increase in volume as a direct result of increase in pressure due to burial.
D	creates facies due to increase in temperature and pressure.

Question 65 Explanation:

Few answers above can be considered as a right answers, but only one choice can be considered by technical definition.

Question 66

Turbidity flows result in deposits known as turbidites. In the ideal turbidite sequence, where would you expect to find ripples? (ID-SSM2-02)

A	Section C; the third one from the bottom.
B	Section D; the fourth one from the bottom.
C	Section B; the second one from the bottom.
D	Section E; the fifth one from the bottom.
E	Section A; the first one from the bottom.

Question 67

What are Tufa or travertine? (ID-SSM2-93)

A	Organic precipitate of calcium carbonate.
B	A type of sediment that was undergoing transition to coal from peat.
C	Deep lake facies characterized by high concentrations of oncoids.
D	Inorganic precipitate of calcium carbonate.
E	Clastic lake margin deposits.

Question 68

If you have to identify the single most cause(while it is a combination of many) of alluvial fans formation, it would be... (ID-SSM2-17)

A	the change in elevation.
B	the loss of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.
C	the change in base level.
D	the gain of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.

Question 68 Explanation:

This is a tricky question... While several answers above can be right, the fundamental cause is the velocity change which in trigger density change causing deposition.

Question 69

Diagenesis is the process in which... (ID-SSM2-05)

A	grains transported to a new environment.
B	sediments get buried.
C	original horizontally changed due to a tectonic event.
D	soil created.

Question 69 Explanation:

To be clear; Diagenesis is the process of compaction and lithofication of sediments into sedimentary rocks.

Question 70

How is Alizarin Red-S staining agent is used to identify dolomite? (ID-SSM2-62)

A	It will increase the relief by staining the dolomite grain boundaries.
B	It will stain dolomite red but will not stain the other carbonates.
C	It will not stain dolomite but colours the other carbonates pink.
D	It will react with dolomite and stain it in green.

Question 71

On a sandy braided river system, the slip face would form on transverse bars on the.... (ID-SSM2-55)

A	downstream side.
B	left side in N. America and right side in Australia.
C	upstream side.
D	right side in N. America and left side in Australia.
E	left and right side, parallel to the flow.

Question 72

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 2 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-42)

A	wave influx delta with a shape of a cupcake.
B	tidal flow delta with a shape of a cupcake.
C	wave influx delta with a shape of a bird's foot.
D	sediment impact delta with a shape of a bird's foot.

Question 73

What can be interpreted from presence of histosols in a core sample? (ID-SSM2-87)

A	This particular core section must have been taken from the distal edge of a weave dominated delta deposit.
B	The area must have been concentrated with poorly developed soil.
C	This particular core section represents a channel bar deposit.
D	The area must have been arid.
E	The area must have been enriched in organic matter.

Question 74

Which of the following statement is true about facies and/or beds? (ID-SSM2-10)

A	Bed are vertical planer features resulted from recent geologic activities.
B	A rock or lithologic unit that has consistent properties is known as a facies.
C	Facies only form in complex geologic environments.
D	Beds are composed of several facies.

Question 75

What is flow expansion? (ID-SSM2-21)

A	Flow expansion is caused by increase in area of the fluid flow.
B	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in area of the fluid flow.
C	Flow expansion is caused by increase in sediment load of the fluid flow.
D	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in sediment load of the fluid flow.

Question 76

Due to modern day global warming, the change in overall global sediment accommodation space has undergone.... (ID-SSM2-15)

A	subsidence
B	transgression
C	erosion
D	base level increase
E	regression

Question 77

In general, rivers are stable systems. (ID-SSM2-54)

A	True
B	False

Question 78

Ogoki River hydro power dam in Ontario will result in___. (ID-SSM2-16)

A	fall in local base level.
B	rise in global base level.
C	fall in global base level.
D	rise in local base level.

Question 79

Which of the following describes characteristics of floatstones according to Dunham Classification? (ID-SSM2-68)

A	Grain supported with some mud within the matrix.
B	Mud supported with less than 10% grains.
C	Mud supported with more than 10% grains.
D	Organic framework supported with original components organically bounded.
E	Matrix supported with more than 10% grains.

Question 79 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 80

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section A is.... (ID-SSM2-40)

A	alluvial dominated.
B	tidal dominated.
C	wave dominated.
D	fluvial dominated.

Question 81

How does large scale oxbow lakes get filled up by sediments? (ID-SSM2-80)

A	During a flooding event.
B	Development of soil form vegetation. Hint: Yes, but typically for smaller oxbow lakes.
C	Collapse of sediments from overbanks.
D	Gravel deposits through biological activities in the surrounding area.

Question 82

What is the most common type of cements in nature? (ID-SSM2-07)

A	silica and pyrite
B	pyrite and calcite
C	calcite and silica
D	silica and iron

Question 83

A Geologist noticed that Bouma sequence in the area only indicate deposition of lower units (ex A and B only). He/she is most likely at the... (ID-SSM2-04)

A	middle of the flow.
B	end of flow.
C	beginning of the flow.

Question 84

Which of the following describes Banded Iron Formations or BIFs? (ID-SSM2-74)

A	Typically thin iron rich beds are composed of haematite rich sediments.
B	BIFs forms in modern environment, but at much smaller scale and rate.
C	Iron within BIFs must have been oxidized before they were deposited as bands of thin beds.
D	BIFs most likely formed in deep basins with very high iron rich organic sediment influx.

Question 85

Which direction a facies sequences can propagate? (ID-SSM2-29)

A	vertically downwards
B	vertically and laterally
C	laterally left or right
D	vertically upwards

Question 86

Where do you expect the highest pressure on a meandering system? (ID-SSM2-51)

A	Near the outer cut bank. Hint: aka outer bank
B	Shallowest part of the river.
C	Floodplains on both sides of the river.
D	Near the point bar.

Question 86 Explanation:

This pressure difference result in helicoidal flow which cause erosion on the cut bank(aka outer bank) of the meandering system.

Question 87

Which of the following is a characteristic of wave dominated delta? (ID-SSM2-84)

A	Lobe shaped bay fill towards the sea with a shape like a "bird's foot".
B	Flat or straight distal edge.
C	Increase in sediment accumulation towards the distal edge due to sandy deposits.
D	Large distributary channels developed well into the distal regions.

Question 88

This is an areal image taken in 1996 of a geologic feature in Skeidararsandur (Iceland). What is the best interpretation for this image? (ID-SSM2-48)

Copyrighted to Magnus Tumi Gumundsson and Finnur Palsson

A	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow
B	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with heavy sediment load
C	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow
D	Delta formed due to tidal flow
E	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with high density sediment load

Question 88 Explanation:

This is a difficult question, but a fair question.

Question 89

Tidal inlets form under____ (pick the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-60)

A	high energy conditions.
B	low energy conditions.
C	low density flows.
D	high density flows.

Question 89 Explanation:

While density of the flow may play a role in how inlets in a tidally dominated deltas, it is the high energy condition drives the mechanism for the formation of inlets.

Question 90

A fan delta is a depositional feature that is formed where an alluvial fan develops directly in a body of standing water(lake/ocean) as a result of streams originating from a steep environment. (ID-SSM2-23)

A	False
B	True

Question 91

Which of the following is indicative of phreatic zone sediments? (ID-SSM2-77)

A	Saturated zones of calcite within the matrix.
B	Isopachous cement between grains.
C	Presence of globular masses of digenetic minerals within matrix.
D	Meniscus cements between grains.
E	Complete dolomitisation.

Question 92

Large scale sandy deposits, important to the petroleum industry, are most likely to be found within which of the following river system sub-environments? (ID-SSM2-75)

A	Floodplains
B	Crevasse Splays
C	Channels
D	Levees

Question 93

What is the primary process that derive formation of rhizocretions? (ID-SSM2-88)

A	Chemical weathering
B	Rise of water table
C	Fall of water table
D	Physical weathering
E	Gravity and pressure due to overburden sediment load

Question 94

How is scars different from oxbow lakes? (ID-SSM2-33)

A	They are the same thing, scars formed in dry-humid environment and oxbow lakes formed in wet environments.
B	Scars and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers. The difference is where oxbow lakes are filled with water.
C	Scars are produced by braided rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.
D	Scars are produced by anastomating rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.

Question 94 Explanation:

aka meandering scars

Question 95

Where would you most likely to find palustrine environments? (ID-SSM2-92)

A	Lake margins with very gentle slopes.
B	Within deep channels in a braided river system.
C	At the mouth of rivers that carry large sediment load.
D	At the toe of wave dominated deltas with large scale muddy deposits.
E	Areas of mixing salt water with fresh water.

Question 96

What is cementation? (ID-SSM2-06)

A	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
B	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.
C	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.
D	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.

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Credits: Based on the excellent class notes provided by, Dr. Melissa Giovanni during Fall 2012. This version has been updated on between January and February 2016.
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My personal advice: Since the exams are written, if you score less than 90% on the following MC questions, seriously reconsider your study strategies for this class.

Sanuja Senanayake

Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Standing on the shoulders of giants

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

Some of the Lab Final sample images | Click here

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Standing on the shoulders of giants