Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Question 1

Which of the following describes Banded Iron Formations or BIFs? (ID-SSM2-74)

A	BIFs most likely formed in deep basins with very high iron rich organic sediment influx.
B	BIFs forms in modern environment, but at much smaller scale and rate.
C	Typically thin iron rich beds are composed of haematite rich sediments.
D	Iron within BIFs must have been oxidized before they were deposited as bands of thin beds.

Question 2

Tidal inlets form under____ (pick the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-60)

A	high energy conditions.
B	high density flows.
C	low energy conditions.
D	low density flows.

Question 2 Explanation:

While density of the flow may play a role in how inlets in a tidally dominated deltas, it is the high energy condition drives the mechanism for the formation of inlets.

Question 3

What is the process of transgressions? (ID-SSM2-13)

A	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of fall in sea level.
B	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.
C	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of drop in sea level.
D	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.

Question 4

In alluvial fan transverse cross sections a geologist will___. (ID-SSM2-20)

A	observe a increase in base level moving downstream (positive change in slope).
B	observe a drop in base level moving downstream (negative change in slope).
C	observe a no change in base level or overall elevation since the sediments get deposited in a rapid rate.
D	observe an increase and then a decrease in base level moving downstream (like a bra cup).

Question 5

Walther's law state... (ID-SSM2-30)

A	high energy currents can flow upstream, if the total energy of the current is higher than the gravitational gradient.
B	the vertical succession of facies reflects lateral changes in environment.
C	rise in sea level cause regression.
D	only beds with above 6 cm in thickness can be consider as a facies.

Question 5 Explanation:

Another way to state this would be; only those facies that were deposited side-by-side may be juxtaposed vertically.

Question 6

On tidally dominated delta formations, lagoons can be identified by their fine grained mud (Fm) and/or rich organic content. (ID-SSM2-58)

A	False, that's a longitudinal bar.
B	False, that's a point bar.
C	True

Question 7

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 3 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-43)

A	tidal energy based delta (bird's foot)
B	wave energy based delta (smear)
C	wave energy based delta (cupcake)
D	tidal energy based delta (smear)

Question 8

Chert is mostly composed of which of the following mineral? (ID-SSM2-72)

A	Halite
B	Epsomite
C	Glass
D	Apatite
E	Quartz

Question 9

Your job title is "Master of Exploitation of Natural Resources". If you were to search for hydro-carbons, which would be the best place to start(with the lowest cost to the company)? (ID-SSM2-27)

A	on a river bed
B	on a large vegetated point bar
C	an oxbow lake
D	an alluvial fan

Question 9 Explanation:

An oxbow lake is the best for coal formation. In general it takes less resources(both human and technological) to extract coal from an oxbow lake than extract oil from an alluvial fan. This question is testing your IQ. 🙂

Question 10

According to Dunham Classification, this type of rock has an extensive organic framework. (ID-SSM2-67)

A	Carbonate mudstone
B	Boundstone
C	Grainstone
D	Rudstone
E	Wackestone

Question 10 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 11

What is the difference between Calcite and Aragonite? (ID-SSM2-61)

A	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is calcium magnesium carbonate, CaMg(CO₃)₂.
B	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is iron carbonate, FeCO₃.
C	Calcite is a carbonate mineral while aragonite is a silicate mineral.
D	Calcite has a different chemical properties than aragonite because calcite has an extra calcium ion.
E	Calcite has a trigonal crystal form, aragonite has an orthorhombic crystal form.

Question 12

The process of compaction will result in... (choose the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-09)

A	precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
B	creates facies due to increase in temperature and pressure.
C	reduce porosity causing beds to be thinner and dehydrated.
D	increase in volume as a direct result of increase in pressure due to burial.

Question 12 Explanation:

Few answers above can be considered as a right answers, but only one choice can be considered by technical definition.

Question 13

Sandy braided river systems will form __A__ and gravel braided rivers systems will form __B__. (ID-SSM2-56)

A	A. levees B. point bars.
B	A. unstable channels B. stable channels
C	A. longitudinal bars B. transverse bars
D	A. stable channels B. unstable channels
E	A. transverse bars B. longitudinal bars

Question 14

Which of the following statement is true about facies and/or beds? (ID-SSM2-10)

A	Beds are composed of several facies.
B	A rock or lithologic unit that has consistent properties is known as a facies.
C	Bed are vertical planer features resulted from recent geologic activities.
D	Facies only form in complex geologic environments.

Question 15

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section A is.... (ID-SSM2-40)

A	wave dominated.
B	fluvial dominated.
C	tidal dominated.
D	alluvial dominated.

Question 16

Multiple interconnected channels are most likely to form within.... (ID-SSM2-78)

A	overbanks of lakes.
B	underwater fluvial deposits.
C	meandering rivers.
D	anastomosing rivers.

Question 17

Where would you expect braided rivers to form? (ID-SSM2-79)

A	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with low sediment load.
B	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with low sediment load.
C	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with high sediment load.
D	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with high sediment load.

Question 18

This is an areal image taken in 1996 of a geologic feature in Skeidararsandur (Iceland). What is the best interpretation for this image? (ID-SSM2-48)

Copyrighted to Magnus Tumi Gumundsson and Finnur Palsson

A	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow
B	Delta formed due to tidal flow
C	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with high density sediment load
D	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow
E	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with heavy sediment load

Question 18 Explanation:

This is a difficult question, but a fair question.

Question 19

Meandering rivers most likely to formed in areas with... (ID-SSM2-34)

A	high gradient.
B	low gradient.
C	stable channels carrying a lose sediment load (such as sand/mud).
D	shallow unstable channels.
E	rivers with high width to depth ratio.

Question 19 Explanation:

Low gradient=low width to depth ratio. In some areas the difference is so small, it is harder for a Geologist to find the downstream direction (assuming river is not flowing).

While the meander is caused by several factors; the main factor is the low slope of the channel.

Question 20

Turbidity flows result in deposits known as turbidites. In the ideal turbidite sequence, where would you expect to find ripples? (ID-SSM2-02)

A	Section B; the second one from the bottom.
B	Section D; the fourth one from the bottom.
C	Section A; the first one from the bottom.
D	Section C; the third one from the bottom.
E	Section E; the fifth one from the bottom.

Question 21

Which of the following is indicative of phreatic zone sediments? (ID-SSM2-77)

A	Meniscus cements between grains.
B	Complete dolomitisation.
C	Saturated zones of calcite within the matrix.
D	Presence of globular masses of digenetic minerals within matrix.
E	Isopachous cement between grains.

Question 22

Majority of modern day seawater is concentrated with which of the following ion? (ID-SSM2-69)

A	Calcium
B	Sodium
C	Chlorine
D	Magnesium
E	Potassium

Question 23

It is impossible to have a base level lower than the sea level. (ID-SSM2-14)

A	True
B	False

Question 23 Explanation:

Because the base level is actually the LOCAL lowest point in a river/lake. Imagine if you have a river 100s of km long and base level in can be lower than sea level in some area, but as long as gradient of the overall slope is downwards, the water will flow.

Question 24

Which of the following describes characteristics of floatstones according to Dunham Classification? (ID-SSM2-68)

A	Mud supported with less than 10% grains.
B	Matrix supported with more than 10% grains.
C	Organic framework supported with original components organically bounded.
D	Grain supported with some mud within the matrix.
E	Mud supported with more than 10% grains.

Question 24 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 25

What is cementation? (ID-SSM2-06)

A	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.
B	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
C	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
D	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.

Question 26

When you move from bottom to top in ideal turbidite Bouma sequence (A -> E), the flow velocity will... (ID-SSM2-03)

A	decrease
B	fluctuate between high and low
C	remain consent
D	increase
E	None of the answers are correct because it could either increase or decrease depending on the environment.

Question 27

A geological formation can have several lithofacies. (ID-SSM2-28)

A	False
B	True

Question 28

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 2 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-42)

A	wave influx delta with a shape of a cupcake.
B	sediment impact delta with a shape of a bird's foot.
C	wave influx delta with a shape of a bird's foot.
D	tidal flow delta with a shape of a cupcake.

Question 29

Ogoki River hydro power dam in Ontario will result in___. (ID-SSM2-16)

A	rise in global base level.
B	fall in global base level.
C	fall in local base level.
D	rise in local base level.

Question 30

A Professional Geologist have made the following observations: (ID-SSM2-24)
-active and extinct distributaries
-poorly sorted and mostly matrix supported
-reverse grading in basal section
-very steep surface with no vegetation
A possible environment for such observations could be....

A	debris flow dominated fan
B	high sediment load river bed
C	low sediment load river bed
D	humid-desert extreme weather dominated river bed
E	stream flow dominated fan

Question 31

The process which the pressure difference drives the water from cut bank to point bar is caused by... (ID-SSM2-44)

A	gravitational force.
B	gravitational flow.
C	sediment accumulation.
D	helicoidal flow.

Question 32

What type of environment would you expect to find this type of facies? (ID-SSM2-46)

A	meandering river
B	wave dominated delta
C	alluvial fan
D	tidal dominated delta
E	braided river
F	fluvial dominated delta

Question 33

Which direction a facies sequences can propagate? (ID-SSM2-29)

A	vertically downwards
B	vertically and laterally
C	vertically upwards
D	laterally left or right

Question 34

In general, rivers are stable systems. (ID-SSM2-54)

A	True
B	False

Question 35

What would you always expect to find in an alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-18)

A	Distributaries
B	Extinct channels.
C	Tributaries
D	Avulsion
E	Overbanks

Question 36

An oxbow lake most likely to be formed... (ID-SSM2-32)

A	in a high density flow dominated stream.
B	in a braided river.
C	near a braided river.
D	in the anastomosing river.
E	near a meandering river.

Question 37

Alluvial fan deposits are typically associated with ______ facies and rivers deposits are typically associated with ______ facies. (ID-SSM2-83)

A	estuarine , sheet flood
B	ephemeral lake , estuarine
C	sheet flood , aeolian dunes
D	delta , ephemeral lake

Question 38

Which of the following describe ooids? (ID-SSM2-65)

A	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.
B	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
C	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.
D	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.
E	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.

Question 39

Where can a sheetflood (sheet erosion) can be observed? (ID-SSM2-26)

A	all alluvial fans
B	debris flow dominated fans
C	stream-flow dominated fans
D	gradual erosional environments such as a beach/river bed.
E	poorly-sorted load dominated currents

Question 40

Where can you find the apex of the alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-19)

A	Close to the lowest base level.
B	In the most expanded area.
C	Close to the canyon.
D	Close to an extinct channel.

Question 40 Explanation:

Apex is the first point in which the flow expansion occur as a result of widening the area of flow.

Question 41

When moving from A to B on the following flow chart (with respect to deltas), (ID-SSM2-52)

(A) Channels --> Levees --> Crevasse splay --> Floodplain (B)

A	the density decreases.
B	the density increases.
C	the grain size increases.
D	the grain size decreases.
E	the bioturbation decreases.

Question 42

As the amount of evaporation increases in lakes, the type of mineral precipitation varies. Which of the following has the correct order of mineral precipitation as lakes environment move from low evaporation to high evaporation? (ID-SSM2-94)

A	Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum - Halite
B	Calcium carbonate - Halite - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum
C	Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Calcium carbonate - Halite
D	Gypsum - Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite
E	Calcium carbonate - Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite

Question 43

Which of the following is the best possible location for a oil (petroleum) exploration? (ID-SSM2-73)

A	Younger/modern point bar
B	Older point bar
C	Older alluvial fan
D	Younger/modern river bed
E	Older oxbow lake

Question 44

Where would you most likely to find palustrine environments? (ID-SSM2-92)

A	At the toe of wave dominated deltas with large scale muddy deposits.
B	Areas of mixing salt water with fresh water.
C	At the mouth of rivers that carry large sediment load.
D	Within deep channels in a braided river system.
E	Lake margins with very gentle slopes.

Question 45

On a sandy braided river system, the slip face would form on transverse bars on the.... (ID-SSM2-55)

A	right side in N. America and left side in Australia.
B	left side in N. America and right side in Australia.
C	upstream side.
D	left and right side, parallel to the flow.
E	downstream side.

Question 46

Which of the following describe oncoids? (ID-SSM2-66)

A	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
B	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.
C	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.
D	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.
E	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.

Question 47

A core sample can be exclusively used to identify the depositional environment with strong geologic constraints. (ID-SSM2-11)

A	True if the core penetrated across different strata.
B	True if the core is taken perpendicular to the natural depositional surfaces.
C	True if the core samples are taken within few lateral meters from each other.
D	False

Question 47 Explanation:

A core sample by itself cannot be used to identify the depositional environment. Several samples are needed to analyze the geological conditions in a given area.

Question 48

Alluvial fans are differ from deltas because alluvial fans are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. (ID-SSM2-50)

A	True
B	False

Question 48 Explanation:

Both alluvial fans AND deltas are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. However, alluvial fans are deposited at the mouth of the canyon when it enters a low lying land while deltas are formed at the mouth of the river where a body of sediments deposited in a large body of standing water (ocean, lake).

Question 49

How large is the lateral width of a crevasse splay(generally)? (ID-SSM2-37)

A	It can varies widely between 10 of cms to 1000s of Kms depend on the environment.
B	1000s of Kms
C	100s of Kms
D	100s of ms
E	10 of cms

Question 50

How does large scale oxbow lakes get filled up by sediments? (ID-SSM2-80)

A	During a flooding event.
B	Gravel deposits through biological activities in the surrounding area.
C	Development of soil form vegetation. Hint: Yes, but typically for smaller oxbow lakes.
D	Collapse of sediments from overbanks.

Question 51

How is scars different from oxbow lakes? (ID-SSM2-33)

A	Scars and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers. The difference is where oxbow lakes are filled with water.
B	They are the same thing, scars formed in dry-humid environment and oxbow lakes formed in wet environments.
C	Scars are produced by braided rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.
D	Scars are produced by anastomating rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.

Question 51 Explanation:

aka meandering scars

Question 52

Please the following items from bottom to top (aka, A to E) according to ideal Bouma sequence. (ID-SSM2-57)

1. normally graded bed (fining upwards)
2. silt and mud
3. ripples
4. lamination
5. fine lamination

A	3 (bottom) --> 4 --> 1 --> 2 --> 5 (top)
B	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 2 (top)
C	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 5 --> 3 --> 2 (top)
D	2 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 1 (top)

Question 52 Explanation:

more info-external link

Question 53

What is anhydrite? (ID-SSM2-70)

A	It is the dehydrated version of gypsum.
B	It is a type of precipitate occurs between grains of iron rich sediments.
C	It is a type of quartz that lacks water.
D	It is the dehydrated and fibrous version of sylvite.
E	It is the fibrous mineral version of halite.

Question 54

Large scale sandy deposits, important to the petroleum industry, are most likely to be found within which of the following river system sub-environments? (ID-SSM2-75)

A	Channels
B	Crevasse Splays
C	Levees
D	Floodplains

Question 55

Which of the following would increase the sediment accommodation space? (ID-SSM2-53)

A	increase in elevation
B	increase in sediment load Hint: this will decrease the accommodation space due to higher rate of sed accumulation.
C	subsidence
D	uplift

Question 56

Which of the following is associated with lake turbidite deposits? (ID-SSM2-90)

A	Sediment load dominated by fine grains
B	Thermocline waters
C	Epilimnion waters
D	Hypolimnion waters
E	Oxic environment

Question 56 Explanation:

Hypolimnion = cold water and it is below the thermocline. It is also anoxic.

Question 57

These type of fragments commonly found within limestone are faecal pellets of marine organisms such as gastropods. (ID-SSM2-64)

A	Peloids
B	Oncoids
C	Ooids
D	Pisoids

Question 58

What are Tufa or travertine? (ID-SSM2-93)

A	A type of sediment that was undergoing transition to coal from peat.
B	Inorganic precipitate of calcium carbonate.
C	Clastic lake margin deposits.
D	Deep lake facies characterized by high concentrations of oncoids.
E	Organic precipitate of calcium carbonate.

Question 59

Where do you expect the highest pressure on a meandering system? (ID-SSM2-51)

A	Near the point bar.
B	Shallowest part of the river.
C	Near the outer cut bank. Hint: aka outer bank
D	Floodplains on both sides of the river.

Question 59 Explanation:

This pressure difference result in helicoidal flow which cause erosion on the cut bank(aka outer bank) of the meandering system.

Question 60

Turbidity flows can most likely occur in what kind of environment? (ID-SSM2-08)

A	rivers with low sediment load
B	this question is stupid
C	areas with high friction
D	muddy rivers enter the lake

Question 61

Which of the following characteristic of lake deposit is incorrect? (ID-SSM2-95)

A	Typically sands are moderately well sorted.
B	Very high degree of palaeocurrents preservation with extensive paleocurrent networks.
C	Often wave ripples and very fine parallel lamination are observed.
D	Facies an be best described as commonly occur with fluvial deposits, evaporites and associated with aeolian facies.
E	Dominated by sandstone, mudstone, fine-grained limestones and evaporites lithologies.

Question 61 Explanation:

The lake environments are relatively clam. Hence, development of palaeocurrents is very minimal and in most cases insignificant. While clam waters are good for preservation of sedimentary structures, palaeocurrents are not usually observed in lake type settings.

Question 62

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section C is__I__ and these deltas become__II__. (ID-SSM2-41)

A	I. tidal dominated II. estuary
B	I. wave dominated II. estuary
C	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains
D	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains

Question 62 Explanation:

Estuary is an area which mixing of salt and fresh water can occur as a direct result of low slope and reverse(landwards) ocean tides.

Question 63

Bonus; Calgary Elbow River will fall under what type of river system? (ID-SSM2-59)

A	graded
B	anastomosing
C	braided
D	meandering

Question 64

In lakes where sediment plumes and turbidity currents are the main transport mechanisms... (ID-SSM2-91)

A	shallow lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.
B	deep lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.
C	deep lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.
D	None of the answers are correct.
E	shallow lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.

Question 65

According the the classification of trace fossils based on interpretation of the activity of organism, which of the following is typically associated with crawling, gracing and feeding traces? (ID-SSM2-96)

A	Cubichina
B	Repichinia
C	Dominichnia
D	Passichnia
E	Fodinichina

Question 66

Crevasse splays are deposits found in __A__ systems and generally have __B__ grains than flood plain facies. (ID-SSM2-36)

A	A. fluvial B. coarser
B	A. alluvial B. finer
C	A. fluvial B. finer
D	A. alluvial B. coarser

Question 67

Diagenesis is the process in which... (ID-SSM2-05)

A	sediments get buried.
B	soil created.
C	original horizontally changed due to a tectonic event.
D	grains transported to a new environment.

Question 67 Explanation:

To be clear; Diagenesis is the process of compaction and lithofication of sediments into sedimentary rocks.

Question 68

Choose all the correct statements. (more than one answer) (ID-SSM2-49)

A	ε cross beds form in the point bar side of a meandering river.
B	point bar is an area of high erosion.
C	imbricated clasts can be observed om gravel braided system.
D	braided rivers are part of alluvial systems.
E	anastomosing rivers are avulsion dominated rivers.

Question 69

Due to modern day global warming, the change in overall global sediment accommodation space has undergone.... (ID-SSM2-15)

A	base level increase
B	erosion
C	regression
D	subsidence
E	transgression

Question 70

What is the difference between avulsion and migration? (ID-SSM2-38)

A	Migration is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Avulsion is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.
B	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But migration is found in braided rivers and avulsion found in meandering rivers.
C	Avulsion is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Migration is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.
D	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But avulsion is found in braided rivers and migration found in meandering rivers.

Question 71

Pedogenesis is caused by which of the following processes within sediments? (ID-SSM2-86)

A	Chemical and biological
B	Chemical and nuclear
C	Physical, chemical and biological
D	Chemical and mechanical
E	Physical and chemical

Question 72

What is the primary process that derive formation of rhizocretions? (ID-SSM2-88)

A	Fall of water table
B	Gravity and pressure due to overburden sediment load
C	Physical weathering
D	Chemical weathering
E	Rise of water table

Question 73

Imbricated clasts often can be found in this type of system. (ID-SSM2-45)

A	tidal energy delta system.
B	sandy braided system.
C	wave energy delta system.
D	gravel braided system.

Question 74

What type of flow is turbidity flow? (ID-SSM2-01)

A	Debris Flow
B	Sediment Gravity Flow
C	Liquified Flow
D	Density Flow

Question 75

Alluvial fans dominated by debris flows tend to form with __A__, while stream-flow dominated fans tend to form with __B__. (ID-SSM2-25)

A	A. steeper slopes in a wide area B. shallower slopes in a small area
B	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a wide area
C	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a small area
D	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a small area
E	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a wide area

Question 76

What are ephemeral lakes? (ID-SSM2-89)

A	Lakes with very high heat capacity hence able to reduce the temperate of the surrounding regions.
B	Lakes that are temporary bodies of water that exist for short periods of time.
C	Lake that are hydrologically closed and produce large deposits of precipitate minerals.
D	Lakes that form in a volcanic crater or caldera.

Question 77

______ is an important source of industrial potash that occurs associated with halite. (ID-SSM2-71)

A	Gypsum
B	Selenite
C	Apatite
D	Sylvite
E	Epsomite

Question 78

A fan delta is a depositional feature that is formed where an alluvial fan develops directly in a body of standing water(lake/ocean) as a result of streams originating from a steep environment. (ID-SSM2-23)

A	False
B	True

Question 79

What is flow expansion? (ID-SSM2-21)

A	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in sediment load of the fluid flow.
B	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in area of the fluid flow.
C	Flow expansion is caused by increase in sediment load of the fluid flow.
D	Flow expansion is caused by increase in area of the fluid flow.

Question 80

Dedolomitisation result in which of the following? (ID-SSM2-76)

A	Increase the salinity of the groundwater.
B	Decrease in the normal level of water table.
C	Calcium sulphate enrichment of groundwater.
D	Increase in the normal level of water table.
E	Replacement of dolomite by anhydrites.

Question 81

Typically what is the radius of debris flow alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-82)

A	100s of meters to a few kilometers.
B	Less than 20 meters.
C	1 km to tens of kilometers.
D	One to ten kilometers.
E	Hundreds of thousands of kilometers.

Question 81 Explanation:

As a good Geologist, you should know the typical shapes and sizes for different types of alluvial fans. This will help identify different environments and improve geological interpretations.

Question 82

What is the most common type of flow that contributes to the creation of alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-22)

A	sediment-gravity flows
B	density flows
C	diagenesis flow
D	oscillatory flows

Question 83

Which of the following is a characteristic of wave dominated delta? (ID-SSM2-84)

A	Lobe shaped bay fill towards the sea with a shape like a "bird's foot".
B	Large distributary channels developed well into the distal regions.
C	Increase in sediment accumulation towards the distal edge due to sandy deposits.
D	Flat or straight distal edge.

Question 84

Which type of alluvial fans most likely to preserve imbrication of clasts and up stream cross-stratification? (ID-SSM2-85)

A	Subaerial debris flows
B	Stream-channel fans
C	Sheetflood deposition
D	Channel banks

Question 85

Cyanobacterial communities that have an irregular rather than layered form is known as... (ID-SSM2-63)

A	Oncoids
B	Ahermatypic serpulids
C	Thrombolites
D	Stromatolites
E	Stromatoporoids

Question 86

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section B is.... (ID-SSM2-39)

A	wave dominated.
B	tidal dominated.
C	fluvial dominated.
D	alluvial dominated.

Question 87

How is Alizarin Red-S staining agent is used to identify dolomite? (ID-SSM2-62)

A	It will not stain dolomite but colours the other carbonates pink.
B	It will stain dolomite red but will not stain the other carbonates.
C	It will react with dolomite and stain it in green.
D	It will increase the relief by staining the dolomite grain boundaries.

Question 88

What is the best reasonable paleoenvironment interpretation for the following geological observations? (ID-SSM2-81)
-Several channels filled with sandy to muddy deposits
-Most of the channel fills overlaps each others
-Both vertically and laterally the channels are closer to each other

A	Several rivers must have been cut across the paleo flood plane at the same period of time, resulting multiple channels.
B	River avulsion must have occurred with a much lower rate of channel fill and higher subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.
C	River avulsion must have occurred with a much higher rate of channel fill and slow subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.
D	Sediment load must have been enriched in sand relative to muddy and other materials.
E	Must have been a submarine deposit channels within a large underwater deltaic environment.

Question 89

The submarine delta deposits from when... (ID-SSM2-47)

A	density of effluent > density of the ambient Hint: aka hyperpycnal flow
B	density of effluent/density of the ambient = infinity
C	density of effluent < density of the ambient
D	density of effluent = density of the ambient

Question 89 Explanation:

Density of effluent (river water) is higher than the density of the ambient (sea water) causing river sediments to transport further and deposit in the ocean.

Question 90

Inconsistent change in water level is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. (ID-SSM2-35)

A	True
B	False

Question 90 Explanation:

Centrifugal force(F_c) is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. While gravity also play a role, it is minor compared to F_c because the low-slope.

Question 91

When working on a scientific project,__A__ comes before__B__. (ID-SSM2-12)

A	A. observations B. analysis
B	A. observations B. interpretations
C	A. interpretations B. observations
D	A. alcohol B. dirty girls
E	A. analysis B. observations

Question 92

What is Eustasy? (ID-SSM2-31)

A	It is a drug that most geologists take to get high in the woods.
B	It is the term given to absolute sea level.
C	It is the term given to local base level of a fluvial system.
D	It is the term given to local sea level.

Question 93

If you have to identify the single most cause(while it is a combination of many) of alluvial fans formation, it would be... (ID-SSM2-17)

A	the change in elevation.
B	the loss of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.
C	the change in base level.
D	the gain of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.

Question 93 Explanation:

This is a tricky question... While several answers above can be right, the fundamental cause is the velocity change which in trigger density change causing deposition.

Question 94

What is the most common type of cements in nature? (ID-SSM2-07)

A	silica and pyrite
B	calcite and silica
C	pyrite and calcite
D	silica and iron

Question 95

A Geologist noticed that Bouma sequence in the area only indicate deposition of lower units (ex A and B only). He/she is most likely at the... (ID-SSM2-04)

A	end of flow.
B	beginning of the flow.
C	middle of the flow.

Question 96

What can be interpreted from presence of histosols in a core sample? (ID-SSM2-87)

A	This particular core section represents a channel bar deposit.
B	The area must have been enriched in organic matter.
C	The area must have been arid.
D	This particular core section must have been taken from the distal edge of a weave dominated delta deposit.
E	The area must have been concentrated with poorly developed soil.

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Credits: Based on the excellent class notes provided by, Dr. Melissa Giovanni during Fall 2012. This version has been updated on between January and February 2016.
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My personal advice: Since the exams are written, if you score less than 90% on the following MC questions, seriously reconsider your study strategies for this class.

Sanuja Senanayake

Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Standing on the shoulders of giants

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Standing on the shoulders of giants