Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Question 1

Large scale sandy deposits, important to the petroleum industry, are most likely to be found within which of the following river system sub-environments? (ID-SSM2-75)

A	Levees
B	Crevasse Splays
C	Channels
D	Floodplains

Question 2

Cyanobacterial communities that have an irregular rather than layered form is known as... (ID-SSM2-63)

A	Thrombolites
B	Stromatoporoids
C	Stromatolites
D	Ahermatypic serpulids
E	Oncoids

Question 3

Bonus; Calgary Elbow River will fall under what type of river system? (ID-SSM2-59)

A	meandering
B	anastomosing
C	braided
D	graded

Question 4

What is the most common type of cements in nature? (ID-SSM2-07)

A	silica and iron
B	calcite and silica
C	silica and pyrite
D	pyrite and calcite

Question 5

What is flow expansion? (ID-SSM2-21)

A	Flow expansion is caused by increase in sediment load of the fluid flow.
B	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in sediment load of the fluid flow.
C	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in area of the fluid flow.
D	Flow expansion is caused by increase in area of the fluid flow.

Question 6

According to Dunham Classification, this type of rock has an extensive organic framework. (ID-SSM2-67)

A	Wackestone
B	Rudstone
C	Grainstone
D	Boundstone
E	Carbonate mudstone

Question 6 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 7

What are Tufa or travertine? (ID-SSM2-93)

A	Inorganic precipitate of calcium carbonate.
B	A type of sediment that was undergoing transition to coal from peat.
C	Deep lake facies characterized by high concentrations of oncoids.
D	Organic precipitate of calcium carbonate.
E	Clastic lake margin deposits.

Question 8

These type of fragments commonly found within limestone are faecal pellets of marine organisms such as gastropods. (ID-SSM2-64)

A	Peloids
B	Oncoids
C	Ooids
D	Pisoids

Question 9

Due to modern day global warming, the change in overall global sediment accommodation space has undergone.... (ID-SSM2-15)

A	transgression
B	regression
C	erosion
D	subsidence
E	base level increase

Question 10

A core sample can be exclusively used to identify the depositional environment with strong geologic constraints. (ID-SSM2-11)

A	True if the core samples are taken within few lateral meters from each other.
B	False
C	True if the core penetrated across different strata.
D	True if the core is taken perpendicular to the natural depositional surfaces.

Question 10 Explanation:

A core sample by itself cannot be used to identify the depositional environment. Several samples are needed to analyze the geological conditions in a given area.

Question 11

______ is an important source of industrial potash that occurs associated with halite. (ID-SSM2-71)

A	Selenite
B	Sylvite
C	Apatite
D	Gypsum
E	Epsomite

Question 12

What is cementation? (ID-SSM2-06)

A	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.
B	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.
C	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
D	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.

Question 13

Typically what is the radius of debris flow alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-82)

A	One to ten kilometers.
B	Hundreds of thousands of kilometers.
C	1 km to tens of kilometers.
D	Less than 20 meters.
E	100s of meters to a few kilometers.

Question 13 Explanation:

As a good Geologist, you should know the typical shapes and sizes for different types of alluvial fans. This will help identify different environments and improve geological interpretations.

Question 14

What is anhydrite? (ID-SSM2-70)

A	It is the dehydrated version of gypsum.
B	It is a type of quartz that lacks water.
C	It is the dehydrated and fibrous version of sylvite.
D	It is a type of precipitate occurs between grains of iron rich sediments.
E	It is the fibrous mineral version of halite.

Question 15

Chert is mostly composed of which of the following mineral? (ID-SSM2-72)

A	Apatite
B	Epsomite
C	Quartz
D	Glass
E	Halite

Question 16

Pedogenesis is caused by which of the following processes within sediments? (ID-SSM2-86)

A	Physical, chemical and biological
B	Chemical and biological
C	Chemical and mechanical
D	Physical and chemical
E	Chemical and nuclear

Question 17

Which of the following would increase the sediment accommodation space? (ID-SSM2-53)

A	uplift
B	increase in sediment load Hint: this will decrease the accommodation space due to higher rate of sed accumulation.
C	subsidence
D	increase in elevation

Question 18

Which of the following characteristic of lake deposit is incorrect? (ID-SSM2-95)

A	Often wave ripples and very fine parallel lamination are observed.
B	Typically sands are moderately well sorted.
C	Dominated by sandstone, mudstone, fine-grained limestones and evaporites lithologies.
D	Facies an be best described as commonly occur with fluvial deposits, evaporites and associated with aeolian facies.
E	Very high degree of palaeocurrents preservation with extensive paleocurrent networks.

Question 18 Explanation:

The lake environments are relatively clam. Hence, development of palaeocurrents is very minimal and in most cases insignificant. While clam waters are good for preservation of sedimentary structures, palaeocurrents are not usually observed in lake type settings.

Question 19

Which of the following describe ooids? (ID-SSM2-65)

A	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.
B	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.
C	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
D	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.
E	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.

Question 20

Where would you expect braided rivers to form? (ID-SSM2-79)

A	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with high sediment load.
B	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with high sediment load.
C	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with low sediment load.
D	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with low sediment load.

Question 21

How does large scale oxbow lakes get filled up by sediments? (ID-SSM2-80)

A	During a flooding event.
B	Collapse of sediments from overbanks.
C	Development of soil form vegetation. Hint: Yes, but typically for smaller oxbow lakes.
D	Gravel deposits through biological activities in the surrounding area.

Question 22

Choose all the correct statements. (more than one answer) (ID-SSM2-49)

A	ε cross beds form in the point bar side of a meandering river.
B	point bar is an area of high erosion.
C	braided rivers are part of alluvial systems.
D	anastomosing rivers are avulsion dominated rivers.
E	imbricated clasts can be observed om gravel braided system.

Question 23

What can be interpreted from presence of histosols in a core sample? (ID-SSM2-87)

A	This particular core section represents a channel bar deposit.
B	This particular core section must have been taken from the distal edge of a weave dominated delta deposit.
C	The area must have been concentrated with poorly developed soil.
D	The area must have been enriched in organic matter.
E	The area must have been arid.

Question 24

Please the following items from bottom to top (aka, A to E) according to ideal Bouma sequence. (ID-SSM2-57)

1. normally graded bed (fining upwards)
2. silt and mud
3. ripples
4. lamination
5. fine lamination

A	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 2 (top)
B	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 5 --> 3 --> 2 (top)
C	2 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 1 (top)
D	3 (bottom) --> 4 --> 1 --> 2 --> 5 (top)

Question 24 Explanation:

more info-external link

Question 25

In lakes where sediment plumes and turbidity currents are the main transport mechanisms... (ID-SSM2-91)

A	None of the answers are correct.
B	deep lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.
C	deep lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.
D	shallow lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.
E	shallow lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.

Question 26

How large is the lateral width of a crevasse splay(generally)? (ID-SSM2-37)

A	1000s of Kms
B	It can varies widely between 10 of cms to 1000s of Kms depend on the environment.
C	100s of ms
D	10 of cms
E	100s of Kms

Question 27

Where can a sheetflood (sheet erosion) can be observed? (ID-SSM2-26)

A	poorly-sorted load dominated currents
B	all alluvial fans
C	stream-flow dominated fans
D	debris flow dominated fans
E	gradual erosional environments such as a beach/river bed.

Question 28

Turbidity flows result in deposits known as turbidites. In the ideal turbidite sequence, where would you expect to find ripples? (ID-SSM2-02)

A	Section D; the fourth one from the bottom.
B	Section A; the first one from the bottom.
C	Section C; the third one from the bottom.
D	Section E; the fifth one from the bottom.
E	Section B; the second one from the bottom.

Question 29

A geological formation can have several lithofacies. (ID-SSM2-28)

A	False
B	True

Question 30

Ogoki River hydro power dam in Ontario will result in___. (ID-SSM2-16)

A	fall in local base level.
B	rise in local base level.
C	fall in global base level.
D	rise in global base level.

Question 31

Which direction a facies sequences can propagate? (ID-SSM2-29)

A	laterally left or right
B	vertically downwards
C	vertically upwards
D	vertically and laterally

Question 32

Imbricated clasts often can be found in this type of system. (ID-SSM2-45)

A	sandy braided system.
B	gravel braided system.
C	wave energy delta system.
D	tidal energy delta system.

Question 33

It is impossible to have a base level lower than the sea level. (ID-SSM2-14)

A	True
B	False

Question 33 Explanation:

Because the base level is actually the LOCAL lowest point in a river/lake. Imagine if you have a river 100s of km long and base level in can be lower than sea level in some area, but as long as gradient of the overall slope is downwards, the water will flow.

Question 34

What type of flow is turbidity flow? (ID-SSM2-01)

A	Liquified Flow
B	Debris Flow
C	Sediment Gravity Flow
D	Density Flow

Question 35

Dedolomitisation result in which of the following? (ID-SSM2-76)

A	Calcium sulphate enrichment of groundwater.
B	Decrease in the normal level of water table.
C	Increase the salinity of the groundwater.
D	Replacement of dolomite by anhydrites.
E	Increase in the normal level of water table.

Question 36

Which of the following describes characteristics of floatstones according to Dunham Classification? (ID-SSM2-68)

A	Mud supported with more than 10% grains.
B	Organic framework supported with original components organically bounded.
C	Mud supported with less than 10% grains.
D	Matrix supported with more than 10% grains.
E	Grain supported with some mud within the matrix.

Question 36 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 37

In general, rivers are stable systems. (ID-SSM2-54)

A	True
B	False

Question 38

What would you always expect to find in an alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-18)

A	Distributaries
B	Tributaries
C	Avulsion
D	Extinct channels.
E	Overbanks

Question 39

Alluvial fans dominated by debris flows tend to form with __A__, while stream-flow dominated fans tend to form with __B__. (ID-SSM2-25)

A	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a wide area
B	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a wide area
C	A. steeper slopes in a wide area B. shallower slopes in a small area
D	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a small area
E	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a small area

Question 40

According the the classification of trace fossils based on interpretation of the activity of organism, which of the following is typically associated with crawling, gracing and feeding traces? (ID-SSM2-96)

A	Fodinichina
B	Cubichina
C	Repichinia
D	Dominichnia
E	Passichnia

Question 41

On a sandy braided river system, the slip face would form on transverse bars on the.... (ID-SSM2-55)

A	right side in N. America and left side in Australia.
B	left and right side, parallel to the flow.
C	left side in N. America and right side in Australia.
D	upstream side.
E	downstream side.

Question 42

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 2 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-42)

A	sediment impact delta with a shape of a bird's foot.
B	wave influx delta with a shape of a bird's foot.
C	wave influx delta with a shape of a cupcake.
D	tidal flow delta with a shape of a cupcake.

Question 43

When working on a scientific project,__A__ comes before__B__. (ID-SSM2-12)

A	A. observations B. interpretations
B	A. alcohol B. dirty girls
C	A. observations B. analysis
D	A. analysis B. observations
E	A. interpretations B. observations

Question 44

Which of the following is the best possible location for a oil (petroleum) exploration? (ID-SSM2-73)

A	Older point bar
B	Older alluvial fan
C	Older oxbow lake
D	Younger/modern river bed
E	Younger/modern point bar

Question 45

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section C is__I__ and these deltas become__II__. (ID-SSM2-41)

A	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains
B	I. tidal dominated II. estuary
C	I. wave dominated II. estuary
D	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains

Question 45 Explanation:

Estuary is an area which mixing of salt and fresh water can occur as a direct result of low slope and reverse(landwards) ocean tides.

Question 46

Your job title is "Master of Exploitation of Natural Resources". If you were to search for hydro-carbons, which would be the best place to start(with the lowest cost to the company)? (ID-SSM2-27)

A	an oxbow lake
B	an alluvial fan
C	on a river bed
D	on a large vegetated point bar

Question 46 Explanation:

An oxbow lake is the best for coal formation. In general it takes less resources(both human and technological) to extract coal from an oxbow lake than extract oil from an alluvial fan. This question is testing your IQ. 🙂

Question 47

Which of the following is a characteristic of wave dominated delta? (ID-SSM2-84)

A	Lobe shaped bay fill towards the sea with a shape like a "bird's foot".
B	Increase in sediment accumulation towards the distal edge due to sandy deposits.
C	Large distributary channels developed well into the distal regions.
D	Flat or straight distal edge.

Question 48

If you have to identify the single most cause(while it is a combination of many) of alluvial fans formation, it would be... (ID-SSM2-17)

A	the change in elevation.
B	the loss of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.
C	the gain of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.
D	the change in base level.

Question 48 Explanation:

This is a tricky question... While several answers above can be right, the fundamental cause is the velocity change which in trigger density change causing deposition.

Question 49

How is scars different from oxbow lakes? (ID-SSM2-33)

A	Scars and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers. The difference is where oxbow lakes are filled with water.
B	Scars are produced by braided rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.
C	They are the same thing, scars formed in dry-humid environment and oxbow lakes formed in wet environments.
D	Scars are produced by anastomating rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.

Question 49 Explanation:

aka meandering scars

Question 50

Which type of alluvial fans most likely to preserve imbrication of clasts and up stream cross-stratification? (ID-SSM2-85)

A	Subaerial debris flows
B	Stream-channel fans
C	Channel banks
D	Sheetflood deposition

Question 51

In alluvial fan transverse cross sections a geologist will___. (ID-SSM2-20)

A	observe a no change in base level or overall elevation since the sediments get deposited in a rapid rate.
B	observe an increase and then a decrease in base level moving downstream (like a bra cup).
C	observe a drop in base level moving downstream (negative change in slope).
D	observe a increase in base level moving downstream (positive change in slope).

Question 52

Diagenesis is the process in which... (ID-SSM2-05)

A	grains transported to a new environment.
B	sediments get buried.
C	original horizontally changed due to a tectonic event.
D	soil created.

Question 52 Explanation:

To be clear; Diagenesis is the process of compaction and lithofication of sediments into sedimentary rocks.

Question 53

Where can you find the apex of the alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-19)

A	Close to an extinct channel.
B	In the most expanded area.
C	Close to the lowest base level.
D	Close to the canyon.

Question 53 Explanation:

Apex is the first point in which the flow expansion occur as a result of widening the area of flow.

Question 54

What is the most common type of flow that contributes to the creation of alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-22)

A	sediment-gravity flows
B	oscillatory flows
C	diagenesis flow
D	density flows

Question 55

An oxbow lake most likely to be formed... (ID-SSM2-32)

A	near a braided river.
B	in a braided river.
C	in a high density flow dominated stream.
D	near a meandering river.
E	in the anastomosing river.

Question 56

Crevasse splays are deposits found in __A__ systems and generally have __B__ grains than flood plain facies. (ID-SSM2-36)

A	A. fluvial B. coarser
B	A. alluvial B. coarser
C	A. alluvial B. finer
D	A. fluvial B. finer

Question 57

What is the best reasonable paleoenvironment interpretation for the following geological observations? (ID-SSM2-81)
-Several channels filled with sandy to muddy deposits
-Most of the channel fills overlaps each others
-Both vertically and laterally the channels are closer to each other

A	Several rivers must have been cut across the paleo flood plane at the same period of time, resulting multiple channels.
B	Must have been a submarine deposit channels within a large underwater deltaic environment.
C	River avulsion must have occurred with a much lower rate of channel fill and higher subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.
D	Sediment load must have been enriched in sand relative to muddy and other materials.
E	River avulsion must have occurred with a much higher rate of channel fill and slow subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.

Question 58

When you move from bottom to top in ideal turbidite Bouma sequence (A -> E), the flow velocity will... (ID-SSM2-03)

A	fluctuate between high and low
B	decrease
C	None of the answers are correct because it could either increase or decrease depending on the environment.
D	remain consent
E	increase

Question 59

Which of the following is associated with lake turbidite deposits? (ID-SSM2-90)

A	Thermocline waters
B	Hypolimnion waters
C	Epilimnion waters
D	Oxic environment
E	Sediment load dominated by fine grains

Question 59 Explanation:

Hypolimnion = cold water and it is below the thermocline. It is also anoxic.

Question 60

What type of environment would you expect to find this type of facies? (ID-SSM2-46)

A	tidal dominated delta
B	alluvial fan
C	braided river
D	fluvial dominated delta
E	meandering river
F	wave dominated delta

Question 61

Multiple interconnected channels are most likely to form within.... (ID-SSM2-78)

A	overbanks of lakes.
B	anastomosing rivers.
C	meandering rivers.
D	underwater fluvial deposits.

Question 62

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section A is.... (ID-SSM2-40)

A	tidal dominated.
B	wave dominated.
C	fluvial dominated.
D	alluvial dominated.

Question 63

How is Alizarin Red-S staining agent is used to identify dolomite? (ID-SSM2-62)

A	It will not stain dolomite but colours the other carbonates pink.
B	It will react with dolomite and stain it in green.
C	It will stain dolomite red but will not stain the other carbonates.
D	It will increase the relief by staining the dolomite grain boundaries.

Question 64

Which of the following statement is true about facies and/or beds? (ID-SSM2-10)

A	Facies only form in complex geologic environments.
B	Beds are composed of several facies.
C	A rock or lithologic unit that has consistent properties is known as a facies.
D	Bed are vertical planer features resulted from recent geologic activities.

Question 65

Where do you expect the highest pressure on a meandering system? (ID-SSM2-51)

A	Near the point bar.
B	Shallowest part of the river.
C	Near the outer cut bank. Hint: aka outer bank
D	Floodplains on both sides of the river.

Question 65 Explanation:

This pressure difference result in helicoidal flow which cause erosion on the cut bank(aka outer bank) of the meandering system.

Question 66

A fan delta is a depositional feature that is formed where an alluvial fan develops directly in a body of standing water(lake/ocean) as a result of streams originating from a steep environment. (ID-SSM2-23)

A	False
B	True

Question 67

The process which the pressure difference drives the water from cut bank to point bar is caused by... (ID-SSM2-44)

A	gravitational flow.
B	helicoidal flow.
C	sediment accumulation.
D	gravitational force.

Question 68

Tidal inlets form under____ (pick the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-60)

A	low energy conditions.
B	low density flows.
C	high density flows.
D	high energy conditions.

Question 68 Explanation:

While density of the flow may play a role in how inlets in a tidally dominated deltas, it is the high energy condition drives the mechanism for the formation of inlets.

Question 69

Walther's law state... (ID-SSM2-30)

A	rise in sea level cause regression.
B	only beds with above 6 cm in thickness can be consider as a facies.
C	the vertical succession of facies reflects lateral changes in environment.
D	high energy currents can flow upstream, if the total energy of the current is higher than the gravitational gradient.

Question 69 Explanation:

Another way to state this would be; only those facies that were deposited side-by-side may be juxtaposed vertically.

Question 70

What is Eustasy? (ID-SSM2-31)

A	It is the term given to local sea level.
B	It is a drug that most geologists take to get high in the woods.
C	It is the term given to absolute sea level.
D	It is the term given to local base level of a fluvial system.

Question 71

Turbidity flows can most likely occur in what kind of environment? (ID-SSM2-08)

A	areas with high friction
B	rivers with low sediment load
C	muddy rivers enter the lake
D	this question is stupid

Question 72

On tidally dominated delta formations, lagoons can be identified by their fine grained mud (Fm) and/or rich organic content. (ID-SSM2-58)

A	True
B	False, that's a longitudinal bar.
C	False, that's a point bar.

Question 73

Where would you most likely to find palustrine environments? (ID-SSM2-92)

A	Areas of mixing salt water with fresh water.
B	At the toe of wave dominated deltas with large scale muddy deposits.
C	At the mouth of rivers that carry large sediment load.
D	Lake margins with very gentle slopes.
E	Within deep channels in a braided river system.

Question 74

What is the difference between Calcite and Aragonite? (ID-SSM2-61)

A	Calcite has a different chemical properties than aragonite because calcite has an extra calcium ion.
B	Calcite has a trigonal crystal form, aragonite has an orthorhombic crystal form.
C	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is calcium magnesium carbonate, CaMg(CO₃)₂.
D	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is iron carbonate, FeCO₃.
E	Calcite is a carbonate mineral while aragonite is a silicate mineral.

Question 75

The process of compaction will result in... (choose the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-09)

A	reduce porosity causing beds to be thinner and dehydrated.
B	precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
C	increase in volume as a direct result of increase in pressure due to burial.
D	creates facies due to increase in temperature and pressure.

Question 75 Explanation:

Few answers above can be considered as a right answers, but only one choice can be considered by technical definition.

Question 76

This is an areal image taken in 1996 of a geologic feature in Skeidararsandur (Iceland). What is the best interpretation for this image? (ID-SSM2-48)

Copyrighted to Magnus Tumi Gumundsson and Finnur Palsson

A	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with heavy sediment load
B	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow
C	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with high density sediment load
D	Delta formed due to tidal flow
E	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow

Question 76 Explanation:

This is a difficult question, but a fair question.

Question 77

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 3 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-43)

A	wave energy based delta (cupcake)
B	tidal energy based delta (bird's foot)
C	wave energy based delta (smear)
D	tidal energy based delta (smear)

Question 78

Inconsistent change in water level is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. (ID-SSM2-35)

A	False
B	True

Question 78 Explanation:

Centrifugal force(F_c) is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. While gravity also play a role, it is minor compared to F_c because the low-slope.

Question 79

A Geologist noticed that Bouma sequence in the area only indicate deposition of lower units (ex A and B only). He/she is most likely at the... (ID-SSM2-04)

A	end of flow.
B	middle of the flow.
C	beginning of the flow.

Question 80

Majority of modern day seawater is concentrated with which of the following ion? (ID-SSM2-69)

A	Potassium
B	Chlorine
C	Magnesium
D	Calcium
E	Sodium

Question 81

When moving from A to B on the following flow chart (with respect to deltas), (ID-SSM2-52)

(A) Channels --> Levees --> Crevasse splay --> Floodplain (B)

A	the density increases.
B	the bioturbation decreases.
C	the grain size increases.
D	the grain size decreases.
E	the density decreases.

Question 82

As the amount of evaporation increases in lakes, the type of mineral precipitation varies. Which of the following has the correct order of mineral precipitation as lakes environment move from low evaporation to high evaporation? (ID-SSM2-94)

A	Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Calcium carbonate - Halite
B	Gypsum - Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite
C	Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum - Halite
D	Calcium carbonate - Halite - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum
E	Calcium carbonate - Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite

Question 83

Meandering rivers most likely to formed in areas with... (ID-SSM2-34)

A	rivers with high width to depth ratio.
B	stable channels carrying a lose sediment load (such as sand/mud).
C	low gradient.
D	shallow unstable channels.
E	high gradient.

Question 83 Explanation:

Low gradient=low width to depth ratio. In some areas the difference is so small, it is harder for a Geologist to find the downstream direction (assuming river is not flowing).

While the meander is caused by several factors; the main factor is the low slope of the channel.

Question 84

Which of the following describes Banded Iron Formations or BIFs? (ID-SSM2-74)

A	BIFs forms in modern environment, but at much smaller scale and rate.
B	Typically thin iron rich beds are composed of haematite rich sediments.
C	BIFs most likely formed in deep basins with very high iron rich organic sediment influx.
D	Iron within BIFs must have been oxidized before they were deposited as bands of thin beds.

Question 85

What are ephemeral lakes? (ID-SSM2-89)

A	Lakes that form in a volcanic crater or caldera.
B	Lake that are hydrologically closed and produce large deposits of precipitate minerals.
C	Lakes with very high heat capacity hence able to reduce the temperate of the surrounding regions.
D	Lakes that are temporary bodies of water that exist for short periods of time.

Question 86

Alluvial fans are differ from deltas because alluvial fans are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. (ID-SSM2-50)

A	True
B	False

Question 86 Explanation:

Both alluvial fans AND deltas are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. However, alluvial fans are deposited at the mouth of the canyon when it enters a low lying land while deltas are formed at the mouth of the river where a body of sediments deposited in a large body of standing water (ocean, lake).

Question 87

A Professional Geologist have made the following observations: (ID-SSM2-24)
-active and extinct distributaries
-poorly sorted and mostly matrix supported
-reverse grading in basal section
-very steep surface with no vegetation
A possible environment for such observations could be....

A	high sediment load river bed
B	humid-desert extreme weather dominated river bed
C	debris flow dominated fan
D	low sediment load river bed
E	stream flow dominated fan

Question 88

Sandy braided river systems will form __A__ and gravel braided rivers systems will form __B__. (ID-SSM2-56)

A	A. levees B. point bars.
B	A. unstable channels B. stable channels
C	A. stable channels B. unstable channels
D	A. transverse bars B. longitudinal bars
E	A. longitudinal bars B. transverse bars

Question 89

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section B is.... (ID-SSM2-39)

A	alluvial dominated.
B	tidal dominated.
C	wave dominated.
D	fluvial dominated.

Question 90

The submarine delta deposits from when... (ID-SSM2-47)

A	density of effluent/density of the ambient = infinity
B	density of effluent = density of the ambient
C	density of effluent > density of the ambient Hint: aka hyperpycnal flow
D	density of effluent < density of the ambient

Question 90 Explanation:

Density of effluent (river water) is higher than the density of the ambient (sea water) causing river sediments to transport further and deposit in the ocean.

Question 91

Which of the following describe oncoids? (ID-SSM2-66)

A	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.
B	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.
C	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
D	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.
E	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.

Question 92

What is the process of transgressions? (ID-SSM2-13)

A	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.
B	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of fall in sea level.
C	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of drop in sea level.
D	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.

Question 93

What is the primary process that derive formation of rhizocretions? (ID-SSM2-88)

A	Fall of water table
B	Gravity and pressure due to overburden sediment load
C	Physical weathering
D	Rise of water table
E	Chemical weathering

Question 94

Which of the following is indicative of phreatic zone sediments? (ID-SSM2-77)

A	Complete dolomitisation.
B	Isopachous cement between grains.
C	Presence of globular masses of digenetic minerals within matrix.
D	Saturated zones of calcite within the matrix.
E	Meniscus cements between grains.

Question 95

Alluvial fan deposits are typically associated with ______ facies and rivers deposits are typically associated with ______ facies. (ID-SSM2-83)

A	sheet flood , aeolian dunes
B	estuarine , sheet flood
C	ephemeral lake , estuarine
D	delta , ephemeral lake

Question 96

What is the difference between avulsion and migration? (ID-SSM2-38)

A	Avulsion is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Migration is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.
B	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But avulsion is found in braided rivers and migration found in meandering rivers.
C	Migration is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Avulsion is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.
D	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But migration is found in braided rivers and avulsion found in meandering rivers.

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Credits: Based on the excellent class notes provided by, Dr. Melissa Giovanni during Fall 2012. This version has been updated on between January and February 2016.
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My personal advice: Since the exams are written, if you score less than 90% on the following MC questions, seriously reconsider your study strategies for this class.

Sanuja Senanayake

Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Standing on the shoulders of giants

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Standing on the shoulders of giants