Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Question 1

A Geologist noticed that Bouma sequence in the area only indicate deposition of lower units (ex A and B only). He/she is most likely at the... (ID-SSM2-04)

A	middle of the flow.
B	end of flow.
C	beginning of the flow.

Question 2

What is the best reasonable paleoenvironment interpretation for the following geological observations? (ID-SSM2-81)
-Several channels filled with sandy to muddy deposits
-Most of the channel fills overlaps each others
-Both vertically and laterally the channels are closer to each other

A	River avulsion must have occurred with a much lower rate of channel fill and higher subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.
B	Several rivers must have been cut across the paleo flood plane at the same period of time, resulting multiple channels.
C	Sediment load must have been enriched in sand relative to muddy and other materials.
D	Must have been a submarine deposit channels within a large underwater deltaic environment.
E	River avulsion must have occurred with a much higher rate of channel fill and slow subsidence rate relative to the rate of overbank fill.

Question 3

The process which the pressure difference drives the water from cut bank to point bar is caused by... (ID-SSM2-44)

A	gravitational flow.
B	gravitational force.
C	helicoidal flow.
D	sediment accumulation.

Question 4

Imbricated clasts often can be found in this type of system. (ID-SSM2-45)

A	sandy braided system.
B	wave energy delta system.
C	tidal energy delta system.
D	gravel braided system.

Question 5

On tidally dominated delta formations, lagoons can be identified by their fine grained mud (Fm) and/or rich organic content. (ID-SSM2-58)

A	False, that's a point bar.
B	False, that's a longitudinal bar.
C	True

Question 6

How is scars different from oxbow lakes? (ID-SSM2-33)

A	Scars and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers. The difference is where oxbow lakes are filled with water.
B	They are the same thing, scars formed in dry-humid environment and oxbow lakes formed in wet environments.
C	Scars are produced by anastomating rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.
D	Scars are produced by braided rivers and oxbow lakes are produced by meandering rivers.

Question 6 Explanation:

aka meandering scars

Question 7

What is the difference between avulsion and migration? (ID-SSM2-38)

A	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But avulsion is found in braided rivers and migration found in meandering rivers.
B	Avulsion is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Migration is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.
C	Migration is the rapid change of a river channel and usually caused by a sudden event such as a flood or an earthquake. Avulsion is the normal lateral motion of an alluvial river channel across its floodplain.
D	Avulsion and migration both caused by the rapid change of a river channel. But migration is found in braided rivers and avulsion found in meandering rivers.

Question 8

What type of environment would you expect to find this type of facies? (ID-SSM2-46)

A	tidal dominated delta
B	meandering river
C	fluvial dominated delta
D	braided river
E	wave dominated delta
F	alluvial fan

Question 9

What is the primary process that derive formation of rhizocretions? (ID-SSM2-88)

A	Physical weathering
B	Chemical weathering
C	Rise of water table
D	Fall of water table
E	Gravity and pressure due to overburden sediment load

Question 10

It is impossible to have a base level lower than the sea level. (ID-SSM2-14)

A	True
B	False

Question 10 Explanation:

Because the base level is actually the LOCAL lowest point in a river/lake. Imagine if you have a river 100s of km long and base level in can be lower than sea level in some area, but as long as gradient of the overall slope is downwards, the water will flow.

Question 11

Diagenesis is the process in which... (ID-SSM2-05)

A	original horizontally changed due to a tectonic event.
B	sediments get buried.
C	soil created.
D	grains transported to a new environment.

Question 11 Explanation:

To be clear; Diagenesis is the process of compaction and lithofication of sediments into sedimentary rocks.

Question 12

______ is an important source of industrial potash that occurs associated with halite. (ID-SSM2-71)

A	Epsomite
B	Selenite
C	Apatite
D	Sylvite
E	Gypsum

Question 13

Alluvial fans are differ from deltas because alluvial fans are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. (ID-SSM2-50)

A	True
B	False

Question 13 Explanation:

Both alluvial fans AND deltas are formed as a direct result of flow expansion. However, alluvial fans are deposited at the mouth of the canyon when it enters a low lying land while deltas are formed at the mouth of the river where a body of sediments deposited in a large body of standing water (ocean, lake).

Question 14

This is an areal image taken in 1996 of a geologic feature in Skeidararsandur (Iceland). What is the best interpretation for this image? (ID-SSM2-48)

Copyrighted to Magnus Tumi Gumundsson and Finnur Palsson

A	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with high density sediment load
B	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow
C	Delta formed due to hyperpycnal flow
D	Delta formed due to tidal flow
E	Alluvial fan formed by a stream with heavy sediment load

Question 14 Explanation:

This is a difficult question, but a fair question.

Question 15

Due to modern day global warming, the change in overall global sediment accommodation space has undergone.... (ID-SSM2-15)

A	regression
B	erosion
C	subsidence
D	base level increase
E	transgression

Question 16

Pedogenesis is caused by which of the following processes within sediments? (ID-SSM2-86)

A	Chemical and mechanical
B	Chemical and nuclear
C	Physical, chemical and biological
D	Physical and chemical
E	Chemical and biological

Question 17

Typically what is the radius of debris flow alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-82)

A	Less than 20 meters.
B	One to ten kilometers.
C	1 km to tens of kilometers.
D	100s of meters to a few kilometers.
E	Hundreds of thousands of kilometers.

Question 17 Explanation:

As a good Geologist, you should know the typical shapes and sizes for different types of alluvial fans. This will help identify different environments and improve geological interpretations.

Question 18

Bonus; Calgary Elbow River will fall under what type of river system? (ID-SSM2-59)

A	meandering
B	braided
C	graded
D	anastomosing

Question 19

How large is the lateral width of a crevasse splay(generally)? (ID-SSM2-37)

A	100s of ms
B	1000s of Kms
C	100s of Kms
D	10 of cms
E	It can varies widely between 10 of cms to 1000s of Kms depend on the environment.

Question 20

Sandy braided river systems will form __A__ and gravel braided rivers systems will form __B__. (ID-SSM2-56)

A	A. stable channels B. unstable channels
B	A. transverse bars B. longitudinal bars
C	A. levees B. point bars.
D	A. unstable channels B. stable channels
E	A. longitudinal bars B. transverse bars

Question 21

A core sample can be exclusively used to identify the depositional environment with strong geologic constraints. (ID-SSM2-11)

A	True if the core samples are taken within few lateral meters from each other.
B	False
C	True if the core penetrated across different strata.
D	True if the core is taken perpendicular to the natural depositional surfaces.

Question 21 Explanation:

A core sample by itself cannot be used to identify the depositional environment. Several samples are needed to analyze the geological conditions in a given area.

Question 22

In general, rivers are stable systems. (ID-SSM2-54)

A	True
B	False

Question 23

Where can you find the apex of the alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-19)

A	Close to the canyon.
B	In the most expanded area.
C	Close to an extinct channel.
D	Close to the lowest base level.

Question 23 Explanation:

Apex is the first point in which the flow expansion occur as a result of widening the area of flow.

Question 24

Which of the following describe oncoids? (ID-SSM2-66)

A	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
B	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.
C	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.
D	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.
E	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.

Question 25

What would you always expect to find in an alluvial fan? (ID-SSM2-18)

A	Tributaries
B	Distributaries
C	Extinct channels.
D	Avulsion
E	Overbanks

Question 26

The submarine delta deposits from when... (ID-SSM2-47)

A	density of effluent < density of the ambient
B	density of effluent > density of the ambient Hint: aka hyperpycnal flow
C	density of effluent = density of the ambient
D	density of effluent/density of the ambient = infinity

Question 26 Explanation:

Density of effluent (river water) is higher than the density of the ambient (sea water) causing river sediments to transport further and deposit in the ocean.

Question 27

How does large scale oxbow lakes get filled up by sediments? (ID-SSM2-80)

A	Gravel deposits through biological activities in the surrounding area.
B	Collapse of sediments from overbanks.
C	Development of soil form vegetation. Hint: Yes, but typically for smaller oxbow lakes.
D	During a flooding event.

Question 28

Meandering rivers most likely to formed in areas with... (ID-SSM2-34)

A	stable channels carrying a lose sediment load (such as sand/mud).
B	low gradient.
C	rivers with high width to depth ratio.
D	high gradient.
E	shallow unstable channels.

Question 28 Explanation:

Low gradient=low width to depth ratio. In some areas the difference is so small, it is harder for a Geologist to find the downstream direction (assuming river is not flowing).

While the meander is caused by several factors; the main factor is the low slope of the channel.

Question 29

Which of the following describe ooids? (ID-SSM2-65)

A	Bodies of calcium carbonate less than 2mm in diameter and form by the precipitation of calcium carbonate.
B	Layers bound by cyanobacteria found as clasts within carbonate sediments.
C	Fragments of calcium carbonate material that has been partly lithified.
D	Very fine grained material that precipitate by the breakdown of skeletal fragments.
E	Planktonic yellowgreen algae that are extremely important contributors to marine sediments.

Question 30

When working on a scientific project,__A__ comes before__B__. (ID-SSM2-12)

A	A. alcohol B. dirty girls
B	A. observations B. interpretations
C	A. analysis B. observations
D	A. interpretations B. observations
E	A. observations B. analysis

Question 31

When you move from bottom to top in ideal turbidite Bouma sequence (A -> E), the flow velocity will... (ID-SSM2-03)

A	increase
B	decrease
C	None of the answers are correct because it could either increase or decrease depending on the environment.
D	fluctuate between high and low
E	remain consent

Question 32

Inconsistent change in water level is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. (ID-SSM2-35)

A	False
B	True

Question 32 Explanation:

Centrifugal force(F_c) is the the primary driving force for meandering rivers. While gravity also play a role, it is minor compared to F_c because the low-slope.

Question 33

Which type of alluvial fans most likely to preserve imbrication of clasts and up stream cross-stratification? (ID-SSM2-85)

A	Subaerial debris flows
B	Channel banks
C	Stream-channel fans
D	Sheetflood deposition

Question 34

In alluvial fan transverse cross sections a geologist will___. (ID-SSM2-20)

A	observe a drop in base level moving downstream (negative change in slope).
B	observe a no change in base level or overall elevation since the sediments get deposited in a rapid rate.
C	observe a increase in base level moving downstream (positive change in slope).
D	observe an increase and then a decrease in base level moving downstream (like a bra cup).

Question 35

Which of the following describes Banded Iron Formations or BIFs? (ID-SSM2-74)

A	BIFs forms in modern environment, but at much smaller scale and rate.
B	Typically thin iron rich beds are composed of haematite rich sediments.
C	Iron within BIFs must have been oxidized before they were deposited as bands of thin beds.
D	BIFs most likely formed in deep basins with very high iron rich organic sediment influx.

Question 36

According to Dunham Classification, this type of rock has an extensive organic framework. (ID-SSM2-67)

A	Grainstone
B	Boundstone
C	Carbonate mudstone
D	Wackestone
E	Rudstone

Question 36 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 37

Which of the following is associated with lake turbidite deposits? (ID-SSM2-90)

A	Thermocline waters
B	Sediment load dominated by fine grains
C	Oxic environment
D	Hypolimnion waters
E	Epilimnion waters

Question 37 Explanation:

Hypolimnion = cold water and it is below the thermocline. It is also anoxic.

Question 38

Large scale sandy deposits, important to the petroleum industry, are most likely to be found within which of the following river system sub-environments? (ID-SSM2-75)

A	Floodplains
B	Levees
C	Channels
D	Crevasse Splays

Question 39

Please the following items from bottom to top (aka, A to E) according to ideal Bouma sequence. (ID-SSM2-57)

1. normally graded bed (fining upwards)
2. silt and mud
3. ripples
4. lamination
5. fine lamination

A	3 (bottom) --> 4 --> 1 --> 2 --> 5 (top)
B	2 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 1 (top)
C	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 5 --> 3 --> 2 (top)
D	1 (bottom) --> 4 --> 3 --> 5 --> 2 (top)

Question 39 Explanation:

more info-external link

Question 40

Which of the following is indicative of phreatic zone sediments? (ID-SSM2-77)

A	Meniscus cements between grains.
B	Isopachous cement between grains.
C	Presence of globular masses of digenetic minerals within matrix.
D	Complete dolomitisation.
E	Saturated zones of calcite within the matrix.

Question 41

When moving from A to B on the following flow chart (with respect to deltas), (ID-SSM2-52)

(A) Channels --> Levees --> Crevasse splay --> Floodplain (B)

A	the bioturbation decreases.
B	the density increases.
C	the grain size increases.
D	the density decreases.
E	the grain size decreases.

Question 42

What is the difference between Calcite and Aragonite? (ID-SSM2-61)

A	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is calcium magnesium carbonate, CaMg(CO₃)₂.
B	Calcite is calcium carbonate, CaCO₃ while aragonite is iron carbonate, FeCO₃.
C	Calcite has a trigonal crystal form, aragonite has an orthorhombic crystal form.
D	Calcite is a carbonate mineral while aragonite is a silicate mineral.
E	Calcite has a different chemical properties than aragonite because calcite has an extra calcium ion.

Question 43

Where would you most likely to find palustrine environments? (ID-SSM2-92)

A	Within deep channels in a braided river system.
B	Areas of mixing salt water with fresh water.
C	Lake margins with very gentle slopes.
D	At the toe of wave dominated deltas with large scale muddy deposits.
E	At the mouth of rivers that carry large sediment load.

Question 44

Turbidity flows can most likely occur in what kind of environment? (ID-SSM2-08)

A	areas with high friction
B	rivers with low sediment load
C	muddy rivers enter the lake
D	this question is stupid

Question 45

What are Tufa or travertine? (ID-SSM2-93)

A	Organic precipitate of calcium carbonate.
B	Deep lake facies characterized by high concentrations of oncoids.
C	A type of sediment that was undergoing transition to coal from peat.
D	Clastic lake margin deposits.
E	Inorganic precipitate of calcium carbonate.

Question 46

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 3 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-43)

A	wave energy based delta (cupcake)
B	tidal energy based delta (bird's foot)
C	wave energy based delta (smear)
D	tidal energy based delta (smear)

Question 47

Where can a sheetflood (sheet erosion) can be observed? (ID-SSM2-26)

A	poorly-sorted load dominated currents
B	debris flow dominated fans
C	gradual erosional environments such as a beach/river bed.
D	stream-flow dominated fans
E	all alluvial fans

Question 48

How is Alizarin Red-S staining agent is used to identify dolomite? (ID-SSM2-62)

A	It will stain dolomite red but will not stain the other carbonates.
B	It will increase the relief by staining the dolomite grain boundaries.
C	It will react with dolomite and stain it in green.
D	It will not stain dolomite but colours the other carbonates pink.

Question 49

What is Eustasy? (ID-SSM2-31)

A	It is the term given to absolute sea level.
B	It is the term given to local sea level.
C	It is a drug that most geologists take to get high in the woods.
D	It is the term given to local base level of a fluvial system.

Question 50

These type of fragments commonly found within limestone are faecal pellets of marine organisms such as gastropods. (ID-SSM2-64)

A	Pisoids
B	Oncoids
C	Peloids
D	Ooids

Question 51

Ogoki River hydro power dam in Ontario will result in___. (ID-SSM2-16)

A	fall in global base level.
B	rise in local base level.
C	rise in global base level.
D	fall in local base level.

Question 52

What is the most common type of flow that contributes to the creation of alluvial fans? (ID-SSM2-22)

A	density flows
B	diagenesis flow
C	sediment-gravity flows
D	oscillatory flows

Question 53

Walther's law state... (ID-SSM2-30)

A	only beds with above 6 cm in thickness can be consider as a facies.
B	high energy currents can flow upstream, if the total energy of the current is higher than the gravitational gradient.
C	the vertical succession of facies reflects lateral changes in environment.
D	rise in sea level cause regression.

Question 53 Explanation:

Another way to state this would be; only those facies that were deposited side-by-side may be juxtaposed vertically.

Question 54

In lakes where sediment plumes and turbidity currents are the main transport mechanisms... (ID-SSM2-91)

A	deep lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.
B	shallow lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.
C	None of the answers are correct.
D	shallow lake facies will consist of very finely laminated muds deposited from suspension alternating with thin graded turbidites.
E	deep lake facies will consist of alternating large scale muddy beds and sandy beds.

Question 55

Where would you expect braided rivers to form? (ID-SSM2-79)

A	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with low sediment load.
B	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with high sediment load.
C	Between meandering section and the upstream of rivers with high sediment load.
D	At low gradient slopes near the mouth of the river with low sediment load.

Question 56

A Professional Geologist have made the following observations: (ID-SSM2-24)
-active and extinct distributaries
-poorly sorted and mostly matrix supported
-reverse grading in basal section
-very steep surface with no vegetation
A possible environment for such observations could be....

A	debris flow dominated fan
B	humid-desert extreme weather dominated river bed
C	stream flow dominated fan
D	high sediment load river bed
E	low sediment load river bed

Question 57

Majority of modern day seawater is concentrated with which of the following ion? (ID-SSM2-69)

A	Calcium
B	Sodium
C	Potassium
D	Chlorine
E	Magnesium

Question 58

A fan delta is a depositional feature that is formed where an alluvial fan develops directly in a body of standing water(lake/ocean) as a result of streams originating from a steep environment. (ID-SSM2-23)

A	False
B	True

Question 59

On a sandy braided river system, the slip face would form on transverse bars on the.... (ID-SSM2-55)

A	left and right side, parallel to the flow.
B	upstream side.
C	right side in N. America and left side in Australia.
D	left side in N. America and right side in Australia.
E	downstream side.

Question 60

What is cementation? (ID-SSM2-06)

A	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
B	Precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.
C	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces increasing the porosity.
D	Addition of chemicals from outside of the strata into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.

Question 61

Your job title is "Master of Exploitation of Natural Resources". If you were to search for hydro-carbons, which would be the best place to start(with the lowest cost to the company)? (ID-SSM2-27)

A	an alluvial fan
B	on a large vegetated point bar
C	on a river bed
D	an oxbow lake

Question 61 Explanation:

An oxbow lake is the best for coal formation. In general it takes less resources(both human and technological) to extract coal from an oxbow lake than extract oil from an alluvial fan. This question is testing your IQ. 🙂

Question 62

What type of flow is turbidity flow? (ID-SSM2-01)

A	Liquified Flow
B	Debris Flow
C	Sediment Gravity Flow
D	Density Flow

Question 63

Which of the following statement is true about facies and/or beds? (ID-SSM2-10)

A	Facies only form in complex geologic environments.
B	Bed are vertical planer features resulted from recent geologic activities.
C	Beds are composed of several facies.
D	A rock or lithologic unit that has consistent properties is known as a facies.

Question 64

Crevasse splays are deposits found in __A__ systems and generally have __B__ grains than flood plain facies. (ID-SSM2-36)

A	A. fluvial B. coarser
B	A. alluvial B. finer
C	A. alluvial B. coarser
D	A. fluvial B. finer

Question 65

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed at point 2 (blue) can be described as... (ID-SSM2-42)

A	sediment impact delta with a shape of a bird's foot.
B	wave influx delta with a shape of a cupcake.
C	wave influx delta with a shape of a bird's foot.
D	tidal flow delta with a shape of a cupcake.

Question 66

Which direction a facies sequences can propagate? (ID-SSM2-29)

A	vertically upwards
B	vertically downwards
C	laterally left or right
D	vertically and laterally

Question 67

What is the most common type of cements in nature? (ID-SSM2-07)

A	pyrite and calcite
B	calcite and silica
C	silica and pyrite
D	silica and iron

Question 68

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section A is.... (ID-SSM2-40)

A	fluvial dominated.
B	wave dominated.
C	tidal dominated.
D	alluvial dominated.

Question 69

An oxbow lake most likely to be formed... (ID-SSM2-32)

A	in the anastomosing river.
B	in a braided river.
C	in a high density flow dominated stream.
D	near a meandering river.
E	near a braided river.

Question 70

Dedolomitisation result in which of the following? (ID-SSM2-76)

A	Increase in the normal level of water table.
B	Calcium sulphate enrichment of groundwater.
C	Decrease in the normal level of water table.
D	Replacement of dolomite by anhydrites.
E	Increase the salinity of the groundwater.

Question 71

Multiple interconnected channels are most likely to form within.... (ID-SSM2-78)

A	meandering rivers.
B	underwater fluvial deposits.
C	overbanks of lakes.
D	anastomosing rivers.

Question 72

If you have to identify the single most cause(while it is a combination of many) of alluvial fans formation, it would be... (ID-SSM2-17)

A	the loss of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.
B	the change in elevation.
C	the gain of energy(velocity) of the load bearing currents.
D	the change in base level.

Question 72 Explanation:

This is a tricky question... While several answers above can be right, the fundamental cause is the velocity change which in trigger density change causing deposition.

Question 73

What are ephemeral lakes? (ID-SSM2-89)

A	Lakes that form in a volcanic crater or caldera.
B	Lakes that are temporary bodies of water that exist for short periods of time.
C	Lake that are hydrologically closed and produce large deposits of precipitate minerals.
D	Lakes with very high heat capacity hence able to reduce the temperate of the surrounding regions.

Question 74

Which of the following is the best possible location for a oil (petroleum) exploration? (ID-SSM2-73)

A	Older point bar
B	Younger/modern river bed
C	Younger/modern point bar
D	Older alluvial fan
E	Older oxbow lake

Question 75

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section B is.... (ID-SSM2-39)

A	fluvial dominated.
B	alluvial dominated.
C	wave dominated.
D	tidal dominated.

Question 76

Alluvial fans dominated by debris flows tend to form with __A__, while stream-flow dominated fans tend to form with __B__. (ID-SSM2-25)

A	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a small area
B	A. steeper slopes in a wide area B. shallower slopes in a small area
C	A. steeper slopes in a small area B. shallower slopes in a wide area
D	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a wide area
E	A. shallower slopes in a small area B. steeper slopes in a small area

Question 77

Tidal inlets form under____ (pick the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-60)

A	high density flows.
B	low density flows.
C	low energy conditions.
D	high energy conditions.

Question 77 Explanation:

While density of the flow may play a role in how inlets in a tidally dominated deltas, it is the high energy condition drives the mechanism for the formation of inlets.

Question 78

Which of the following is a characteristic of wave dominated delta? (ID-SSM2-84)

A	Lobe shaped bay fill towards the sea with a shape like a "bird's foot".
B	Increase in sediment accumulation towards the distal edge due to sandy deposits.
C	Large distributary channels developed well into the distal regions.
D	Flat or straight distal edge.

Question 79

As the amount of evaporation increases in lakes, the type of mineral precipitation varies. Which of the following has the correct order of mineral precipitation as lakes environment move from low evaporation to high evaporation? (ID-SSM2-94)

A	Gypsum - Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite
B	Calcium carbonate - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum - Halite
C	Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Calcium carbonate - Halite
D	Calcium carbonate - Halite - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Gypsum
E	Calcium carbonate - Gypsum - Sodium sulphates (eg. mirabilite) - Halite

Question 80

What is the process of transgressions? (ID-SSM2-13)

A	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.
B	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of fall in sea level.
C	Landward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of rise in sea level.
D	Seaward movement of the shore line often as a direct result of drop in sea level.

Question 81

Turbidity flows result in deposits known as turbidites. In the ideal turbidite sequence, where would you expect to find ripples? (ID-SSM2-02)

A	Section D; the fourth one from the bottom.
B	Section E; the fifth one from the bottom.
C	Section A; the first one from the bottom.
D	Section C; the third one from the bottom.
E	Section B; the second one from the bottom.

Question 82

Chert is mostly composed of which of the following mineral? (ID-SSM2-72)

A	Glass
B	Quartz
C	Apatite
D	Epsomite
E	Halite

Question 83

Which of the following characteristic of lake deposit is incorrect? (ID-SSM2-95)

A	Very high degree of palaeocurrents preservation with extensive paleocurrent networks.
B	Facies an be best described as commonly occur with fluvial deposits, evaporites and associated with aeolian facies.
C	Dominated by sandstone, mudstone, fine-grained limestones and evaporites lithologies.
D	Often wave ripples and very fine parallel lamination are observed.
E	Typically sands are moderately well sorted.

Question 83 Explanation:

The lake environments are relatively clam. Hence, development of palaeocurrents is very minimal and in most cases insignificant. While clam waters are good for preservation of sedimentary structures, palaeocurrents are not usually observed in lake type settings.

Question 84

Which of the following would increase the sediment accommodation space? (ID-SSM2-53)

A	subsidence
B	increase in sediment load Hint: this will decrease the accommodation space due to higher rate of sed accumulation.
C	uplift
D	increase in elevation

Question 85

Alluvial fan deposits are typically associated with ______ facies and rivers deposits are typically associated with ______ facies. (ID-SSM2-83)

A	sheet flood , aeolian dunes
B	delta , ephemeral lake
C	estuarine , sheet flood
D	ephemeral lake , estuarine

Question 86

According the the classification of trace fossils based on interpretation of the activity of organism, which of the following is typically associated with crawling, gracing and feeding traces? (ID-SSM2-96)

A	Repichinia
B	Dominichnia
C	Passichnia
D	Cubichina
E	Fodinichina

Question 87

What is flow expansion? (ID-SSM2-21)

A	Flow expansion is caused by increase in sediment load of the fluid flow.
B	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in sediment load of the fluid flow.
C	Flow expansion is caused by increase in area of the fluid flow.
D	Flow expansion is caused by decrease in area of the fluid flow.

Question 88

A geological formation can have several lithofacies. (ID-SSM2-28)

A	False
B	True

Question 89

Which of the following describes characteristics of floatstones according to Dunham Classification? (ID-SSM2-68)

A	Mud supported with less than 10% grains.
B	Mud supported with more than 10% grains.
C	Matrix supported with more than 10% grains.
D	Grain supported with some mud within the matrix.
E	Organic framework supported with original components organically bounded.

Question 89 Explanation:

Some instructors do not require students to know this.

Question 90

On the following diagram, the type of delta that would formed in section C is__I__ and these deltas become__II__. (ID-SSM2-41)

A	I. wave dominated II. estuary
B	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains
C	I. tidal dominated II. flood plains
D	I. tidal dominated II. estuary

Question 90 Explanation:

Estuary is an area which mixing of salt and fresh water can occur as a direct result of low slope and reverse(landwards) ocean tides.

Question 91

Cyanobacterial communities that have an irregular rather than layered form is known as... (ID-SSM2-63)

A	Thrombolites
B	Stromatolites
C	Stromatoporoids
D	Oncoids
E	Ahermatypic serpulids

Question 92

What can be interpreted from presence of histosols in a core sample? (ID-SSM2-87)

A	This particular core section represents a channel bar deposit.
B	The area must have been enriched in organic matter.
C	This particular core section must have been taken from the distal edge of a weave dominated delta deposit.
D	The area must have been arid.
E	The area must have been concentrated with poorly developed soil.

Question 93

Choose all the correct statements. (more than one answer) (ID-SSM2-49)

A	point bar is an area of high erosion.
B	ε cross beds form in the point bar side of a meandering river.
C	braided rivers are part of alluvial systems.
D	imbricated clasts can be observed om gravel braided system.
E	anastomosing rivers are avulsion dominated rivers.

Question 94

The process of compaction will result in... (choose the most suitable) (ID-SSM2-09)

A	creates facies due to increase in temperature and pressure.
B	precipitation of minerals into the pore spaces reducing the porosity.
C	increase in volume as a direct result of increase in pressure due to burial.
D	reduce porosity causing beds to be thinner and dehydrated.

Question 94 Explanation:

Few answers above can be considered as a right answers, but only one choice can be considered by technical definition.

Question 95

What is anhydrite? (ID-SSM2-70)

A	It is the dehydrated version of gypsum.
B	It is a type of precipitate occurs between grains of iron rich sediments.
C	It is a type of quartz that lacks water.
D	It is the dehydrated and fibrous version of sylvite.
E	It is the fibrous mineral version of halite.

Question 96

Where do you expect the highest pressure on a meandering system? (ID-SSM2-51)

A	Near the outer cut bank. Hint: aka outer bank
B	Shallowest part of the river.
C	Near the point bar.
D	Floodplains on both sides of the river.

Question 96 Explanation:

This pressure difference result in helicoidal flow which cause erosion on the cut bank(aka outer bank) of the meandering system.

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Credits: Based on the excellent class notes provided by, Dr. Melissa Giovanni during Fall 2012. This version has been updated on between January and February 2016.
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My personal advice: Since the exams are written, if you score less than 90% on the following MC questions, seriously reconsider your study strategies for this class.

Sanuja Senanayake

Geology 381 Midterm II-University of Calgary

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Standing on the shoulders of giants

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Geology (GLGY 381-UCAL) Midterm Exam II

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Standing on the shoulders of giants